The division of health related boards, in the department of health, is responsible for all administrative, fiscal, inspectional, clerical and secretarial functions of the health related boards under § 68-1-101.
(1) “Division” means the division of health related boards in the department of health as created by § 68-1-101;
(2) “Health care prescriber” means a:
(A) Physician licensed under chapter 6 or 9 of this title;
(B) Dentist licensed under chapter 5 of this title;
(C) Nurse licensed under chapter 7 of this title;
(D) Podiatrist licensed under chapter 3 of this title;
(E) Optometrist licensed under chapter 8 of this title; and
(F) Physician assistant licensed under chapter 19 of this title;
(3) “Practice of the healing arts” means offering or undertaking to diagnose, treat, operate on or prescribe for any human pain, injury, disease, deformity or physical or mental condition. The practice of acupuncture is hereby declared to be included within the definition of “practice of the healing arts” as defined by this section; and
(4) “Title” means the recognized professional abbreviation or professional designation immediately following or immediately below the person's name that indicates the professional license or certification held by such person.
Each application for a license filed with the division shall be on forms prescribed by the division or via online application and shall be accompanied by a fee as set by the division.
(a) Upon proper direction by the appropriate licensing board, the division shall forthwith issue to the applicant a license of a size and artistic design to be determined by the board.
(b) Every such license issued by the division shall be dated and be numbered in the order of issuance and shall be signed by the executive officer and by the members of the state board charged with the duty by law of issuing the preliminary certificates.
(c) No license, examination or certification shall be denied to any person for practice of any of the healing arts under this title because such person is not a citizen of the United States, if such person is legally entitled to live within the United States.
(d) Any board, committee, council, or agency created pursuant to this title or title 68 that regulates health professionals shall have the authority to do the following at its discretion:
(1) Issue a limited license of temporary duration to applicants who have been out of clinical practice or inactive in their practice for an extended period of time, or who have been or are at the time of their application engaged exclusively in administrative practice; provided, that the applicant meets all other requirements for licensure;
(2) Restrict the scope of practice under such limited license as deemed appropriate;
(3) Restrict the duration of such limited license as deemed appropriate;
(4) Condition the granting of a full license upon an applicant's completion of any educational measures or supervised practice requirements deemed necessary and appropriate to ensure the applicant's competency to practice the profession for which a license is sought.
(e) At the conclusion of the duration of a limited license granted pursuant to subsection (d), an applicant may be eligible for full licensure if the applicant has completed the educational measures or supervised practice requirements the board, committee, council, or agency deemed necessary and appropriate to ensure the applicant's competency to practice. The board, committee, council, or agency may grant a full license before the conclusion of a limited license's duration if an applicant has completed the specified educational measures or practice requirements prior to the expiration of the limited license.
(f) A board, committee, council, or agency may promulgate rules establishing other conditions or requirements with respect to the issuance of limited licenses pursuant to this section in accordance with the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5.
(g) The recipient of a limited license pursuant to this section may engage in the full scope of practice of the applicable profession subject to any limitations or restrictions imposed by the board, committee, council, or agency.
Before issuing any license as provided in this chapter, the division shall cause the license to be signed by the members of the board of the particular branch of the healing arts in which the holder thereof is being licensed.
(a) A licensee of any branch of the healing arts whose license has been lost or destroyed may make application to the board of that particular branch of the healing arts for a new license. Such application shall be accompanied by an affidavit setting out the facts concerning the loss or destruction of the license.
(b) Any licensee of any branch of the healing arts whose name is changed by marriage or court order may surrender that licensee's license and apply to the board of that particular branch of the healing arts for a new license.
(c) The fee for such new license shall be set by the board issuing such certificate.
(1) Every person licensed to practice any branch of the healing arts in this state shall apply to the division for a certificate of registration. Notwithstanding any provision of this title to the contrary, the division, with the approval of the commissioner, shall establish a system of license renewals at alternative intervals that will allow for the distribution of the license workload as uniformly as is practicable throughout the calendar year. Licenses issued under the alternative method are valid for twenty-four (24) months and expire on the last day of the last month of the license period. However, during a transition period, or at any time thereafter when the board determines that the volume of work for any given interval is unduly burdensome or costly, either the licenses or renewals, or both of them, may be issued for terms of not less than six (6) months nor more than eighteen (18) months. The fee imposed for any license under the alternative interval method for a period of other than twenty-four (24) months shall be proportionate to the annual fee and modified in no other manner, except that the proportional fee shall be rounded off to the nearest quarter of a dollar (25¢).
(2) No renewal application will be accepted after the last day of the month following the license expiration date under the alternative method authorized in subdivision (a)(1).
(b)
(1) All new licenses issued by the division, upon application and payment of the registration fee provided in this subsection (b), shall be registered by the division at the time of issuance and a certificate of registration shall be issued to the licensee.
(2) Each application shall be made on a form to be furnished by the division. Such application shall give the applicant's name in full, the applicant's address, the date and number of the license issued to such applicant for the practice of the healing arts or any branch thereof, and such other facts as tend to identify the applicant and the applicant's license as the division deems necessary.
(3) Each applicant for registration shall submit with the application a fee as set annually by the division.
(c) When any licensee fails to register and pay the annual registration fee within sixty (60) days after the registration becomes due as provided in this section, the license of such person shall be automatically revoked at the expiration of sixty (60) days after the registration was required, without further notice or hearing.
(d) Any person whose license is automatically revoked as provided in subsection (c) may make application in writing to the appropriate licensing board for the reinstatement of such license; and, upon good cause being shown, the division and the board in their discretion may reinstate such license upon the payment of the renewal fee as set by the board as well as a late renewal fee set by the board, which may not exceed twice the renewal fee.
(a) Upon due application by a licensee of the division and upon the payment of fees required to be paid by this chapter, the division shall issue to such applicant a certificate of registration signed by the executive officer of the division, which certificate shall recite that such person is duly registered for the year specified.
(b) Such certificate of registration shall contain the name of the person to whom it is issued, the address of the person, which shall be the address of the licensee deemed sufficient for purposes of service of process, the branch of the healing arts in which the person is licensed to practice, the date and number of the license and such other information as the division deems advisable.
(c) If any registrant changes address during the year for which any certificate of registration has been issued by the division, such registrant, within thirty (30) days thereafter, shall notify the division of such change, whereupon the division shall issue to such registrant, without additional fee, a duplicate registration certificate for such new location.
(d) For the purpose of effecting service of process upon a licensee, the division may notify the licensee by certified mail, return receipt requested, at the address on file with the division.
(a) Every person licensed or registered to practice one of the healing arts, or any branch thereof, as delineated in this section shall keep an original or copy of the person's license or certificate of registration displayed in the office or place in which the person practices, in a conspicuous place, and shall place and keep placed in a conspicuous place at the entrance of the person's office, a sign in intelligible lettering and not less than one inch (1″) in height, containing the name of such person immediately followed by the recognized abbreviation indicating the professional degree, if any, held by such person, and containing immediately below the person's name, in equal size lettering, the word or words:
(1) “Chiropractor,” “chiropractic physician” or “doctor of chiropractic” for practitioners of chiropractic;
(2) “Dentist,” “doctor of dental surgery,” “oral surgeon,” “doctor of dental medicine,” “dentist anesthesiologist,” and “dental anesthesiology” for practitioners of dentistry;
(3) “Medical doctor,” “physician,” “medical doctor and surgeon,” “medicine” or “surgeon,” as applicable, for practitioners of medicine and surgery;
(4) “Optometrist,” “doctor of optometry” or “optometric physician” for practitioners of optometry;
(5) “Osteopathic physician,” “osteopathic physician and surgeon,” “doctor of osteopathic medicine” or “doctor of osteopathy” for practitioners of osteopathy;
(6) “Podiatrist,” “podiatric physician,” “doctor of podiatry,” “doctor of podiatric medicine” or “doctor of podiatric medicine and surgery” for practitioners of podiatry;
(7) “Advanced practice registered nurse,” “nurse practitioner,” “nurse anesthetist,” “nurse midwife” or “clinical nurse specialist,” as applicable, for those practicing advanced practice nursing;
(8) “Physician assistant” or “orthopedic physician assistant,” as applicable, for those licensed as a physician assistant;
(9) “Psychologist” or “doctor of psychology” for practitioners of psychology;
(10) “Acupuncturist” for practitioners of acupuncture; and
(11) “Certified professional midwife” for those practitioners of midwifery.
(b) Any recognized specialist in any branch of the healing arts, which special field is recognized or approved by the appropriate board licensing that profession, may substitute the specialist designation for the words indicated in subsection (a).
(c) A healthcare practitioner listed in subsection (a) shall also affirmatively communicate the practitioner's specific licensure, as defined in this section by one (1) of the following methods:
(1) The healthcare practitioner shall wear a photo identification name tag during all patient encounters that shall include a recent photograph of the licensee, the licensee's full name, and the type of license. The name tag shall be of sufficient size and be worn in a conspicuous manner so as to be visible and apparent; or
(2) After January 1, 2012, the healthcare practitioner shall communicate to a patient the practitioner's full name and type of license in writing at the patient's initial office visit.
(d) For purposes of subsection (c), the type of license shall enunciate one (1) or more of the words listed in subsection (a).
(e) A healthcare practitioner who practices in more than one (1) office shall be required to comply with the requirements in each practice setting.
(f) A healthcare practitioner who does not have an office setting can satisfy the requirements of this section by meeting the conditions set forth in subsection (c).
(g) Healthcare practitioners working in facilities licensed pursuant to title 68, chapter 11, or working in facilities licensed pursuant to title 33, chapter 2, are not subject to the requirements of this section.
(h) Healthcare practitioners working in no-patient care settings and who have no direct patient care interactions are not subject to the requirements of this section.
(i) Any healthcare practitioner who violates this section is guilty of unprofessional conduct and shall be subject to disciplinary action in accordance with the appropriate licensure provisions governing the respective healthcare practitioner. A violation of this section shall not create a private right of action by a patient.
(j) Notwithstanding the imposition of any other penalty, the board which has licensed a particular healthcare practitioner may seek injunctive or other relief as appropriate against that practitioner or any entity for a violation of this section.
(k) A healthcare practitioner, who provides information regarding healthcare services on an internet website that is directly controlled or administered by the healthcare practitioner or the practitioner's agent, shall prominently display on the internet website the practitioner's full name and type of license using one (1) or more of the words listed in subsection (a).
(a) Any person licensed to practice a healing art or any branch thereof in this state who is an officer in the commissioned medical corps of the army, the navy, the air force or the public health service of the United States shall not be required to register as provided in this chapter.
(b) When such person resigns or is honorably discharged from one of the services mentioned in subsection (a) and engages in the practice of a healing art or any branch thereof in this state, such person shall register with the appropriate board licensing that profession.
(a) Any person licensed to practice the healing arts or any branch thereof in this state who has retired or may hereafter retire from such practice shall not be required to register as required by this chapter.
(b) Such person shall file with the division an affidavit on a form to be furnished by the division, which affidavit shall state the date on which the person retired from such practice and such other facts as shall tend to verify such retirement as the division shall deem necessary.
(c) Any such person who thereafter reengages in the practice of the healing arts or any branch thereof shall register with the division as provided by this chapter.
(a) No fee for the issuance of licenses to practice the healing arts or any branch thereof shall be collected except by the appropriate board licensing that profession.
(b) All fees due the boards regulating the various branches of the healing arts shall be collected by the division.
(a) All fines and penalties for offenses for the violation of this chapter shall be paid over to the division and shall become a part of the receipts of the division. All money received by the division shall be paid into the state treasury and become a part of the general fund of the state.
(b) The commissioner of finance and administration shall make such allotments out of the general fund as the commissioner may deem proper for the necessary expenses of all professional boards for which fees are collected by the division, and no expenditure shall be made by the division unless and until such allotment has been made by the commissioner. Such allotments shall be disbursed under the general budgetary laws of the state.
The division is authorized to employ investigators, inspectors or agents or to use any other means necessary to bring about and maintain a rigid administration and enforcement of this chapter and all laws regulating the practice of the healing arts and the various branches thereof within this state.
(a) Each board, council, committee or other governmental entity created pursuant to this title or title 68 that is attached to the department is authorized to promulgate all rules and regulations necessary for obtaining criminal background information from applicants prior to the issuance of any licenses, certificates, registrations or other authorizations required to practice any of the health related professions regulated by that board, council, committee or other governmental entity. The respective board, council, committee or other governmental entity may utilize, either individually or in combination, any of the following methods in furtherance of the objectives of this section:
(1) Query the Tennessee bureau of investigation's (TBI) Tennessee criminal history records system for any or all of the following information:
(A) Tennessee criminal history records;
(B) Tennessee repository for apprehension of persons (TRAP);
(C) State of Tennessee orders of protection files (STOP); and
(D) Criminal history records of the federal government and other states to which TBI may have access. Criminal history records of the federal bureau of investigation may be obtained for the reasons listed in this subsection (a), only if fingerprints are obtained and submitted through the TBI;
(2) Require applicants to provide any and all information and investigative records to the board, the division or its agent or to any agency that contracts with the state that is necessary for the purpose of verifying whether the applicant has been convicted of a crime;
(3) Require applicants to supply a fingerprint sample and submit to a criminal history records check to be conducted by the TBI, other law enforcement agency or any legally authorized entity; and
(4) Require applicants to supply any sample or release any information required for a criminal background investigation by a professional background screening organization or criminal background check service or registry.
(b) All costs associated with the required criminal background checks shall be paid by the applicant. Payments of costs required to be made to the TBI shall be made in accordance with §§ 38-6-103 and 38-6-109.
(c) Any board, council, or committee or other governmental entity that denies an application or restricts or conditions any authorization to practice based upon information provided to it under this section shall be immune from suit by or on behalf of that applicant for the denial, restriction or condition.
(d) Initial rules promulgated pursuant to this section may be promulgated as emergency rules pursuant to the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5.
(a) Notwithstanding §§ 63-2-101(b), 68-11-1502 and 68-11-1503, and regardless of any express or implied contracts, agreements or covenants of confidentiality based upon those sections, health care providers shall make their medical records available for inspection and copying by the department of health or its representatives, designees or employees based on the following conditions:
(1) Upon the presentation of a written authorization for release signed by the patient or the patient's legal representative; or
(2) Upon a written request made by the department of health investigators, inspectors or surveyors who are performing authorized investigations, inspections or surveys of facilities or individuals licensed pursuant to this title or title 68 based on a complaint filed with the department or an inspection or survey required by state or federal law. The written request shall contain the nature of the violation, the applicable laws and rules that may have been violated and the specific date by which production of the records is required. The written request shall be made in good faith and shall be related to the complaint, inspection or survey.
(b) This section shall not apply to records that are made statutorily privileged, which shall require for their production a release that specifically identifies the privilege, contains a statement that the privilege is waived and that is signed by the patient or the patient's legal representative.
(c) Any health care provider or representative of any health care provider who furnishes records to a duly authorized representative, designee or employee of the department of health shall be immune from liability to any patient, individual or organization for furnishing such information, data, reports or records or for damages resulting from any decision, opinion, action and proceedings rendered, entered or acted upon by the department of health, if the information or other records or documents provided were provided or created in good faith and without malice and on the basis of facts reasonably known or reasonably believed to exist.
(d) In the event that a health care provider does not comply with the written request for medical records issued in compliance with subdivision (a)(2), the state may file a petition in the chancery court of Davidson County to compel production of the medical records within fifteen (15) days following the date specified for the production of the medical records contained in the written request.
(e) A health care provider's willful disregard of the request for medical records pursuant to this section is grounds for disciplinary action by the licensing board that regulates the health care provider.
(f) The following materials, documents, and other matters related to, or compiled or created pursuant to, an investigation conducted by or on behalf of the department are confidential and not a public record or subject to subpoena, except for subpoenas from law enforcement agencies, before formal disciplinary charges are filed against the provider:
(1) Allegations against the health care provider;
(2) Complainant's identifying information;
(3) Identifying information of a witness who requests anonymity;
(4) Patient's identifying information;
(5) Patient's medical record; and
(6) Any report or documents prepared by or on behalf of the department as a part of an investigation.
(g) After the filing of formal disciplinary charges against the provider, only the materials and documents upon which the charges are based may be disclosed as a public record, but not the complainant's identifying information, identifying information of a witness who requests anonymity, patient's identifying information, patient's medical record or investigator's report.
(h) Department annual health care facility and pharmacy survey inspection reports shall be available to the public pursuant to subsections (f) and (g).
(i) Pursuant to § 68-1-104, the commissioner or the commissioner's designee, upon request, shall obtain access to records maintained by any facility, entity, or individual licensed under this title. Access shall be given in the most efficient and expedient means possible, including remote electronic access, to facilitate investigations and inquiries while responding to an immediate threat to the public health, welfare, or general good. Electronic access shall be limited to the minimum necessary for the duration of the outbreak, event, or time in which the public health is under immediate threat as determined by the commissioner.
(j) This section does not modify or limit the prehearing discovery provisions set forth in the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5.
(k) As used in this section:
(1) “Health care provider” means health care professionals, establishments or facilities licensed, registered, certified or permitted pursuant to this title or title 68 and regulated either under the authority of the department of health or any agency, board, council or committee attached to the department; and
(2) “Medical record” means any and all documents maintained by a health care provider relating to a patient's diagnosis, care and treatment, including, but not limited to, notes, reports, memos, emails, facsimile transmissions, laboratory tests, billing documents and medication orders.
(l) The commissioner of health is authorized to promulgate rules and regulations to effectuate this part.
(a) A licensee of any branch of the healing arts who seeks to be licensed in another state by reciprocity on the basis of the licensee's Tennessee license shall have the application for the license certified by the board of the particular branch of the healing arts in which the licensee is licensed.
(b) The fee for this certificate shall be set by and paid to the board of the particular branch of the healing arts in which the applicant is licensed.
No provision of this chapter shall be construed as repealing any other law with reference to the requirements regulating the practice of the healing arts or any branch thereof, except insofar as the same may conflict with this chapter.
(1) With respect to any person required to be licensed, permitted, certified or authorized by any board, council, committee, agency, or regulatory program created pursuant to chapters 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 16, 17, 18, 19, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28, 29, 30, and 31 of this title and to title 68, chapter 140 attached to the division of health related boards, such board, council, committee or agency may:
(A) Deny an application for licensure, certification, permit or authorization;
(B) Permanently withhold issuance of licensure, certification, permit or authorization;
(C) Suspend, limit or restrict previously issued licensure, certification, permit or authorization; or
(D) Otherwise discipline a holder of a license, certificate, permit or authorization, if the applicant, licensee or certificate or permit holder has been disciplined by another state of the United States for any acts or omissions that would constitute grounds for discipline of a person licensed, certified, permitted or authorized in this state.
(2) A certified copy of the initial order, final order or other equivalent document memorializing the disciplinary action from the disciplining state shall constitute prima facie evidence of a violation of this section and shall be sufficient grounds upon which to deny, restrict or condition the license, permit or certificate renewal or application, and/or otherwise to discipline a licensee licensed in this state.
(b) In disciplinary actions against individuals holding a license, certificate, permit or authorization in this state at the time of a disciplinary action in another reporting state, in the absence of justifying evidence to the contrary, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that the sanction proposed in any such proceeding will be comparable to that in the reporting state; however, no such presumption shall exist for those who are applying for licensure, certification, permit or authorization in this state during or after the time the disciplinary action in the other state is pending or has become final. If a board, council, committee, agency, or regulatory program created pursuant to chapters 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 16, 17, 18, 19, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28, 29, 30, and 31 of this title or title 68, chapter 140 denies, restricts or conditions a licensure, certification, permit or authorization based on a disciplinary action in another state, the applicant shall, upon written request, filed within thirty (30) days of the date of the action on the application, be entitled to a contested case hearing.
(a) The division, in addition to the powers and duties expressed in this chapter with respect to the denial of a license, denial of certificate of registration and suspension or revocation of a license, is empowered to petition any circuit or chancery court having jurisdiction of any person within this state who is practicing without a license or to whom a license has been denied, or to whom a certificate of registration has been denied or whose license has been suspended or revoked by action of the division, to enjoin such person from continuing to practice the healing arts, or any branch thereof, within this state.
(b) Jurisdiction is conferred upon the circuit and chancery courts of this state to hear and determine all such causes as equity causes and exercise full and complete jurisdiction in such injunctive proceedings; but nothing in this section shall be construed as conferring criminal jurisdiction upon any court not now possessing such criminal jurisdiction, nor shall any such court, as an incident to the injunctive proceedings authorized in this section, have the power to assess the criminal penalties set out in this chapter.
For purposes of any action before any board, committee, council, or other agency created pursuant to this title or title 68, in which the standard of care is at issue, members of such a board, committee, council, or agency are entitled to rely upon their own expertise in making determinations concerning the standard of care and are not subject to voir dire concerning such expertise. The standard of care for such actions is a statewide standard of minimal competency and practice; provided, however, that to sustain actions based upon a violation of this standard of care, the board, committee, council, or other agency must, absent admissions or other testimony to the effect that the standard of care was violated, articulate the standard of care in its deliberations. The provisions of title 29, chapter 26, and specifically § 29-26-115(a), concerning the locality rule, do not apply to actions taken pursuant to this title or title 68.
(a) Any person, except those expressly exempted from this chapter by § 63-1-110 or § 63-1-111 who practices the healing arts as defined in this chapter, or any branch thereof, without first complying with this chapter, including all laws now in force regulating the practice of the various branches of the healing arts, and any person who violates this chapter commits a Class B misdemeanor.
(b) Each time any person practices the healing arts, or any branch thereof, without meeting all the requirements of laws now in force and of this chapter constitutes a separate offense. Any person filing or attempting to file as that person's own a diploma or license of another or a forged affidavit of identification commits a felony and is subject to the punishment prescribed by law for the crime of forgery.
The governor shall appoint one (1) citizen member to each health-related board that does not have a citizen as a part of its membership. The term of each such citizen member shall be the same as other members of the respective board to which such person is appointed. As used in this section, “citizen member” means a person who is appointed to serve on a board and who does not engage in any profession, business or activity subject to regulation by the board.
(a) This section shall be known and may be cited as the “Kenneth and Madge Tullis, MD, Suicide Prevention Training Act.”
(b) As used in this section:
(1) “Board” means a health-related board created in this title or title 68 and includes the:
(A) Board for professional counselors, marital and family therapists, and clinical pastoral therapists, created by § 63-22-101;
(B) Board of social work licensure, created by § 63-23-101;
(C) Board of alcohol and drug abuse counselors, created by § 68-24-601; and
(D) Board of occupational therapy, created by § 63-13-216; and
(2) “Training program” means an empirically supported training program that covers the following elements:
(A) Suicide prevention;
(B) Suicide assessment and screening;
(C) Suicide treatment;
(D) Suicide management; and
(E) Suicide postvention.
(c) The department of mental health and substance abuse services shall:
(1) Develop, in collaboration with the Tennessee Suicide Prevention Network, a model list of training programs;
(2) When developing the model list, consider training programs of at least two (2) hours in length that are based on expert consensus and adhere to high standards of suicide prevention;
(3) When developing the model list, consult with the boards; public and private institutions of higher education; experts in suicide prevention, assessment, treatment, management, and postvention; and affected professional associations; and
(4) Report, in collaboration with the Tennessee Suicide Prevention Network, the model list of training programs to the department of health no later than December 15, 2017.
(d) A board may approve a training program that excludes an element described in the definition of training program if the element is inappropriate for the profession in question or inappropriate for the level of licensure or credentialing of that profession based on the profession's scope of practice.
(e) Beginning January 1, 2020, each of the following professionals certified or licensed under this title or title 68 shall, at least once every four (4) years, complete a training program that is approved by rule by the respective boards:
(1) A social worker licensed under chapter 23 of this title;
(2) A marriage and family therapist, professional counselor, or pastoral counselor certified or licensed under chapter 22 of this title;
(3) An alcohol and drug abuse counselor certified under title 68, chapter 24; and
(4) An occupational therapist licensed under chapter 13 of this title.
(f) A professional listed in subsection (e) applying for initial licensure or certification on or after January 1, 2020, is not required to complete the training program required by this section for two (2) years after initial licensure or certification if the professional can demonstrate successful completion of a two-hour academic training program that meets criteria established by the profession's board and that was completed no more than two (2) years prior to the application for initial licensure or certification.
(g) The hours spent completing the training program under this section count toward meeting any applicable continuing education requirements for each profession.
(h) Nothing in this section expands or limits the scope of practice of any profession regulated under this title or title 68.
(1) “Confirmed drug test” means a confirmed test as defined in § 50-9-103;
(2) “Drug” means a drug as defined in § 50-9-103;
(3) “Employer” means a covered employer, as defined in § 50-9-103, that is a healthcare facility licensed under title 68, chapter 11, part 2, or any other healthcare employer that employs healthcare practitioners; and
(4) “Healthcare practitioner” or “practitioner” means any person required to be licensed, permitted, certified, or authorized:
(A) Under this title by a board or committee under the division of health-related boards specified in § 68-1-101(a)(8), who has humans for patients; or
(B) Under title 68, chapter 24, part 6; or
(C) Under title 68, chapter 140.
(b) A healthcare practitioner violates the practitioner's practice act by refusing to submit to a drug test or testing positive for any drug on any government or private sector preemployment or employer-ordered confirmed drug test for an employer when the practitioner does not have a lawful prescription for using the drug or a valid medical reason for using the drug.
(c)
(1)
(A) If a healthcare practitioner refuses to submit to a drug test or tests positive for any drug on any government or private sector preemployment or employer-ordered confirmed drug test for a covered employer, then this section shall apply to the practitioner.
(B) The practitioner shall be given three (3) business days from the time of notification to the practitioner of the confirmed test result to:
(i) Produce a lawful prescription for the drug or a valid medical reason for using the drug to the employer; or
(ii) Report to the substance abuse peer assistance or treatment program of the appropriate board for the practitioner.
(C) So long as the practitioner obtains and maintains the advocacy of the substance abuse peer assistance or treatment program, unless otherwise required by law, the employer is not required to notify the appropriate board for the practitioner of the violation of the practitioner's practice act.
(2)
(A) Whenever a healthcare practitioner who has been referred by the practitioner's employer or who has self-reported to the substance abuse peer assistance or treatment program of the appropriate board pursuant to subdivision (c)(1) fails to obtain or maintain the advocacy of the program, the program shall report the practitioner to the appropriate board concerning the violation of the practitioner's practice act.
(B)
(i) So long as the practitioner complies with the terms and conditions of a referral to a substance abuse peer assistance or treatment program, the practitioner's license or certificate shall not be suspended or revoked by the appropriate board for a positive result on a confirmed drug test or a refusal to submit to a drug test.
(ii) The board shall suspend the license, certificate, permit, or authorization of a healthcare practitioner who has been referred to the substance abuse peer assistance or treatment program pursuant to this subsection (c) when the practitioner fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the program.
(iii) The board is not prohibited from taking any other disciplinary action authorized by law for conduct other than a positive result on a confirmed drug test or a refusal to submit to a drug test.
(iv) A substance abuse peer assistance or treatment program shall promptly report any failure of a practitioner who has reported to the program pursuant to this subsection (c) to maintain compliance with the terms and conditions of the program to the appropriate licensing board.
(d) Any drug test used for action pursuant to this section shall comply with the requirements of title 50, chapter 9. The employer of the healthcare practitioner shall promptly report, as determined by rule and subject to subsection (c), a practitioner who tests positive for any drug on a confirmed drug test, or who refuses to submit to a drug test, to the department.
(e) The commissioner of health is authorized to promulgate rules to effectuate the purposes of this section. The rules shall be promulgated in accordance with the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5.
A quality improvement committee, as defined in § 63-1-150, may share information concerning substance abuse by a healthcare practitioner licensed or certified under this title with another quality improvement committee pursuant to § 63-1-150(d)(3) or § 68-11-272(c)(3) in furtherance of the functions of the committees.
Notwithstanding any law, rule, or policy of a board or the department of health, emergency action by the department or the board under § 4-5-320(c) shall not require the prior approval of the attorney general and reporter.
(a) Health care prescribers, their employees, agents, or independent contractors shall not conduct in-person solicitation, telemarketing, or telephonic solicitation of victims of an accident or disaster, for the purpose of marketing services of the healing arts related to the accident or disaster, unless:
(1) The health care prescriber has a family or prior professional relationship with the victim; or
(2) The solicitation is carried out more than thirty (30) days after the date of the accident or disaster.
(b) Health care prescribers shall maintain:
(1) Telemarketing transcripts for a period of two (2) years following their utilization; and
(2) A log of contacts for a period of two (2) years following a telemarketing encounter.
(c) This section does not prohibit solicitation by targeted direct-mail advertising or other forms of written, radio, or television advertising, as long as the advertising does not involve coercion, duress, or harassment and is not false, deceptive, or misleading.
(d)
(1) Any agreement to pay a health care prescriber for services that were rendered by the health care prescriber as a direct result of a violation of this section is void and unenforceable. No person may collect or pursue collection for any debt arising from such an agreement.
(2) A patient or person who paid on behalf of a patient is entitled to a complete refund of any money paid for services that were rendered by a health care prescriber as a direct result of a violation of this section.
(e) The division is authorized to petition any circuit or chancery court having jurisdiction to enjoin any person who is violating this section. No injunction bond shall be required of the division in such proceedings, and jurisdiction is conferred upon the circuit and chancery courts of this state to hear such cases.
(a) As used in this section, “licensing authority” means any state department, board, commission, or agency that issues any license, certificate, or registration for an individual to engage in an occupation, profession, business, or trade in this state, including to those licensing authorities that have statutory authority to deny, suspend, or revoke a license for felonies or misdemeanors of moral turpitude.
(b)
(1) Subject to the exemptions in this section and unless prohibited by federal law, a licensing authority shall not deny an application for a license, certificate, or registration, or refuse to renew a license, certificate, or registration due to a prior criminal conviction that does not directly relate to the applicable occupation, profession, business, or trade.
(2) Prior to denying an application for a license, certificate, or registration on the basis of a criminal conviction, or prior to the refusal to renew a license, certificate, or registration on the basis of a criminal conviction, the licensing authority shall notify the applicant, licensee, certificate holder, or registrant of the licensing authority's determination in writing via certified mail, facsimile transmission, or email. The written notification shall include the licensing authority's justification for denial or refusal to renew in accordance to subdivision (b)(4)(A). The determination must state the earliest date upon which the applicant is eligible to reapply for the license, certificate, or registration.
(3) Prior to submitting the application necessary to obtain a license, certification, or registration an individual may request written notice from the licensing authority from which they seek to obtain a license, certification, or registration concerning the individual's qualification to obtain the license, certificate, or registration, based on the individual's criminal history. If the licensing authority determines that an individual is disqualified due to the individual's criminal history, the licensing authority must provide the individual with a written notification that sets forth the reasons for its determination and its justification in accordance with subdivision (b)(4)(A). The written notice as to the individual's qualifications to obtain a license, certificate, or registration must be limited to the individual's criminal history and should not be construed as prohibiting the licensing authority from denying an application on other grounds. This determination shall apply exclusively to the individual and shall not be construed as an advisory or formal opinion of the licensing authority.
(4)
(A) In considering whether to deny an application for a license, certificate, or registration to an applicant, or whether to refuse to renew a license, certificate, or registration, on the basis of a criminal conviction, the licensing authority must consider:
(i) The nature and seriousness of the crime for which the individual was convicted;
(ii) The length of time since the commission of the crime;
(iii) The relationship between the nature of the crime and the purposes of regulating the occupation, profession, business, or trade for which the license, certificate, or registration is sought;
(iv) The relationship between the crime and the ability, capacity, and fitness required to perform the duties and discharge the responsibilities of the occupation, profession, business, or trade;
(v) Any evidence of rehabilitation or treatment undertaken by the individual that might mitigate against the relationship of crime to the occupation, profession, business, or trade; and
(vi) Any applicable federal laws regarding an individual's participation in the occupation, profession, business, or trade.
(B) If an applicant, licensee, certificate holder, or registrant's prior conviction was for a Class A felony, Class B felony, or Class C felony not defined under title 39, chapter 17, part 4, or if the felony conviction is for an offense for which the offender is required to register under the Tennessee Animal Abuser Registration Act, compiled in title 40, chapter 39, part 1; the Tennessee Sexual Offender and Violent Sexual Offender Registration, Verification and Tracking Act of 2004, compiled in title 40, chapter 39, part 2; or title 40, chapter 39, part 3, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that the conviction relates to the fitness of the applicant, licensee, certificate holder, or registrant engaged in the applicable occupation, profession, business, or trade.
(c) An individual, applicant, licensee, certificate holder, or registrant who receives written notice pursuant to subdivision (b)(2) or (b)(3) may file a petition within thirty (30) business days of the receipt of the notice in Davidson County chancery court. The licensing authority must demonstrate by a preponderance of the evidence that the individual, applicant, licensee, certificate holder, or registrant's conviction is related to the applicable occupation, profession, business, or trade.
(d) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit a licensing authority created by this title from issuing a restricted or conditional license, if otherwise authorized to do so under law.
(e) Nothing in this section shall be construed to create a separate right to a contested case hearing that does not otherwise exist relative to the denial of the license, certificate, or registration under the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5.
(f) Nothing in this section applies to:
(1) The board of law examiners, created under § 23-1-101;
(2) The board of judicial conduct, created under § 17-5-201;
(3) The licensure of services and facilities operated pursuant to title 33, chapter 2, part 4, for the provision of mental health services, alcohol, and drug abuse prevention or treatment; for the provision of services for intellectual and developmental disabilities; and for personal support services;
(4) The certification of police officers under title 38, chapter 8;
(5) Any licensing authority created under titles 41, 48, 49, 56, and 71;
(6) The department of financial institutions, when acting as a licensing authority pursuant to title 45;
(7) Any license, certificate, or registration issued pursuant to the rules of the supreme court;
(8) The licensure of pain management clinics licensed pursuant to chapter 1, part 3 of this title; and
(9) The licensure of physicians under chapter 6 or 9 of this title.
(g) Notwithstanding another law, the licensing authority shall not use a vague term in its consideration and its notice or decision under this section, including good moral character or character and fitness, without also providing an explanation of how a prior conviction directly relates to the applicable occupation, profession, business, or trade, if such prior conviction serves as a basis for the licensing authority's consideration and notice or decision.
The commissioner of health shall appoint a director of the division of health related boards provided for in this section and §§ 63-1-132, 63-1-133, and 68-1-101.
(a) The director of the division of health related boards has the power, duty, and responsibility to:
(1) Employ all staff assigned or performing duties for the agencies attached to the division;
(2) Promulgate rules and regulations for all administrative functions and activities of the agencies attached to the division as well as all matters that affect more than one (1) of the agencies attached to the division with the approval of the agencies affected. In cases where multiple agencies are authorized to promulgate similar rules that apply to each of the agencies, the director is authorized to hold one (1) public rulemaking hearing and promulgate a single rule or a single chapter of rules, but only after receiving prior approval of the agencies affected;
(3) Employ, with the consent of the regulatory board concerned, all executive directors and consultants; the director may employ all other personnel necessary to carry out the function of all of the agencies attached to the division;
(4) Maintain a central filing system for official records and documents of all agencies attached to the division;
(5) Provide office space and necessary quarters for the agencies attached to the division;
(6) Assign personnel to staff such agencies in order to ensure the most efficient use of personnel; and
(7) Perform such other duties as the commissioner may prescribe, or as may be prescribed by law.
(b) Any employment of personnel or consultants by the division shall be in accordance with the rules, regulations and standards of the departments of human resources and finance and administration.
(a) The director of the division or the director's duly authorized representative shall be an ex officio, nonvoting member of each agency attached to this division and shall be entitled to attend all meetings of such agencies.
(b) All agencies attached to this division shall advise the director of any meeting at which official action will be taken at least forty-eight (48) hours prior to such meeting unless the director expressly waives such requirement.
(a) With respect to any person required to be licensed, permitted or authorized by any board, commission or agency attached to the division of health related boards, each respective board, commission or agency may assess a civil penalty against such person in an amount not to exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000) for each separate violation of a statute, rule or order pertaining to such board, commission or agency. Each day of continued violation constitutes a separate violation.
(b) Each board, commission or agency shall by rule establish a schedule designating the minimum and maximum civil penalties that may be assessed under this section. In assessing civil penalties, the following factors may be considered:
(1) Whether the amount imposed will be a substantial economic deterrent to the violator;
(2) The circumstances leading to the violation;
(3) The severity of the violation and the risk of harm to the public;
(4) The economic benefits gained by the violator as a result of noncompliance; and
(5) The interest of the public.
(c)
(1) Civil penalties assessed pursuant to this section or any other section authorizing the assessment of civil penalties by any board, council or committee established in this title or title 68 that is attached to the department, unless otherwise provided by law, shall become final, due and payable on the date the order in which they are assessed becomes final pursuant to the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5; provided, however, that the boards, councils, committees or the department is authorized to order or enter into agreements for the payment of assessed civil penalties in installments that are due and payable beyond the date on which the assessment becomes final.
(2) If the violator fails to pay an assessment when it becomes final or fails to pay according to the terms of an installment payment plan, the department, in addition to taking further action against the violator's license, may apply to the appropriate court for a judgment and seek execution of the judgment.
(3) Jurisdiction for recovery of such penalties shall be in the chancery court of Davidson County or the chancery court of the county in which all or part of the violations occurred.
(d) All sums recovered pursuant to this section shall be paid into the state treasury.
(1) Before submitting an estimate of its expenditure requirements as provided in § 9-4-5103, the department of health shall consult with each board, commission or agency that is attached to the division of health related boards created under § 68-1-101 and is authorized or required to collect any fees.
(2) Any such board, commission or agency shall timely submit to the commissioner of health an itemized list of any improvements recommended for inclusion in the department's expenditure estimate.
(3) In the preparation of such estimate, the department shall clearly indicate the disposition of each improvement recommendation received under this section.
(b) The department shall transmit with its expenditure estimate a copy of each list of recommended improvements received under this section to the commissioner of finance and administration.
(a) Regulatory boards, commissions and agencies attached to the division of health related boards, in addition to other enumerated powers and duties, have as their purpose assistance in the rehabilitation of impaired health practitioners who are licensed, certified or registered by the respective regulatory boards, commissions and agencies.
(b) Regulatory boards, commissions and agencies attached to the division of health related boards, in addition to other enumerated powers and duties, have the power to enter into agreements, provide grants and make other arrangements with statewide nonprofit professional associations or their affiliated foundations to identify and assist impaired professionals who are licensed, registered or certified by the respective regulatory boards, commissions and agencies.
(c) Regulatory boards, commissions and agencies attached to the division of health related boards have the authority to accept and designate grants, public or private financial assistance and licensure fees to fund programs authorized in subsection (b) to assist impaired professionals. The provision of such grants shall not deem recipient peer assistance programs to be the functional equivalent of the state.
(d) All information, interviews, reports, statements, memoranda and other data furnished to a nonprofit professional association or its affiliated foundation and any findings, conclusions or recommendations resulting from the proceedings of such professional association or its affiliated foundation are privileged and confidential. The records of such proceedings of the affiliated foundation or association shall be used only in the exercise of proper functions of the regulatory board, commission or agency attached to the division of health related boards and shall not become public record nor be made available for court subpoena or discovery proceedings.
(e) If a regulatory board, commission or agency attached to the division of health related boards determines that an association or its affiliated foundation is not providing adequate services under this section, then the board, commission or agency may contract with another nonprofit organization in order to assist impaired professionals.
(f) Organizations that directly provide alcohol and drug treatment services or behavioral health services on an inpatient or outpatient basis for remuneration shall be prohibited from contracting with such board, commission or agency to provide a professional assistance program.
(a) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, all moneys other than the state regulatory fee as provided for in § 9-4-5117 collected by any board attached to the division of health related boards shall be deposited in the state general fund and credited to a separate account for each such board.
(b) Disbursements from such accounts shall be made solely for the purpose of defraying expenses incurred in the implementation and enforcement of the board's area of regulation, including defraying costs to implement the Health Care Consumer Right-to-Know Act of 1998, compiled in chapter 51 of this title.
(c) No such expenses shall be paid from any other state funds other than provided for in § 9-4-5117.
(d) Funds remaining in board accounts at the end of any fiscal year shall not revert to the general fund but shall remain available for expenditure in accordance with law.
(a) The division and each board, committee or council established in this title that does not already have authority to utilize screening panels and the medical laboratory board, the board of alcohol and drug counselors and the Tennessee emergency medical services board as established in title 68 may utilize one (1) or more screening panels in their investigative and disciplinary process to assure that complaints filed and investigations conducted are meritorious and to act as a mechanism for diversion to professional peer review organizations and/or impaired professionals associations or foundations of those cases that the boards, through established guidelines, deem appropriate.
(b) The activities of the screening panels and any mediation or arbitration sessions shall not be construed as meetings of an agency for purposes of the open meetings law, compiled in title 8, chapter 44, and shall remain confidential. The members of the screening panels, mediators and arbitrators have a deliberative privilege and the same immunity as provided by law for the boards and are not subject to deposition or subpoena to testify regarding any matter or issue raised in any contested case, criminal prosecution or civil lawsuit that may result from or be incident to cases processed before them.
(c) The screening panel has the authority to administer oaths to witnesses. Any documents or records produced at the screening panel shall be exempt from the public records law, compiled in title 10, chapter 7, until there is a filing of a notice of charges and such documents or records form the basis for such filing of a notice of charges.
(d) Members of a screening panel may be drawn from among the membership of the relevant board, or members may be appointed by the relevant board. Nonboard members shall meet the requirements of membership for the relevant board and may include a consumer member. A board member serving on a panel shall not participate in a contested case involving any matter heard by the panel.
(e) Each screening panel shall be instructed as to the statutes, rules, regulations and philosophies of the relevant board as it pertains to disciplinary action and to the procedures to be followed by the panels. Each screening panel shall be provided a copy of Rule 31 of the Rules of the Tennessee Supreme Court for review by members of the screening panel for general guidance as to the principles of mediation and alternative dispute resolution.
(f) A board does not have authority to compel any party to participate in a screening panel, and no prejudice will be incurred if the party chooses not to participate or to accept the offer of the screening panel.
(a) Each board, commission, committee, agency or other governmental entity created pursuant to this title, title 68, chapter 24, and title 68, chapter 140, part 3 shall notify each applicant for a license, certification or registration from such board, commission, committee, agency or other governmental entity where to obtain a copy of any statutes, rules, policies and guidelines setting forth the prerequisites for such license, certification or registration and shall, upon request, make available to the applicant a copy of such statutes, rules, policies and guidelines.
(b) Each board, commission, committee, agency or other governmental entity created pursuant to this title, title 68, chapter 24 and title 68, chapter 140, part 3 shall notify each holder of a license, certification or registration from the board, commission, committee, agency or other governmental entity of changes in state law that impact the holder and are implemented or enforced by the entity, including newly promulgated or amended statutes, rules, policies and guidelines. The notification required by this subsection (b) may be satisfied by the board, commission, committee, agency, or other governmental entity posting on its website changes in state law that impact the holder and are implemented or enforced by the entity, including newly promulgated or amended statutes, rules, policies, and guidelines. The website posting must be made within thirty (30) days of the effective date of the change and maintained on the website until at least two (2) years after the effective date of the change.
(c) Each board, commission, committee, agency or other governmental entity created pursuant to this title, title 68, chapter 24 and title 68, chapter 140, part 3 shall establish and maintain a link or links on the entity's website to the statutes, rules, policies and guidelines that are implemented or enforced by the entity and that impact an applicant for, or a holder of, a license, certification or registration from the entity.
(d)
(1) Each board, commission, committee, agency or other governmental entity created pursuant to this title, title 68, chapter 24 and title 68, chapter 140, part 3 shall allow each holder of a license, certification or registration from the board, commission, committee, agency or other governmental entity to have the option of being notified by electronic mail of:
(A) Renewals of the holder’s license, certification or registration;
(B) Any fee increases; and
(C) Any meeting where changes in rules or fees are on the agenda. For purposes of this subdivision (d)(1)(C), the electronic notice shall be at least forty-five (45) days in advance of the meeting, unless it is an emergency meeting then the notice shall be sent as soon as is practicable.
(2) Each board, commission, agency or other governmental entity created pursuant to this title, title 68, chapter 24 and title 68, chapter 140, part 3 shall notify each holder of a license, certification or registration of the availability of receiving electronic notices pursuant to subdivision (d)(1) upon issuance or renewal of the holder’s license, certification or registration.
(e) Each board, commission, committee, agency or other governmental entity created pursuant to this title, title 68, chapter 24 and title 68, chapter 140, part 3 shall have the authority to accept license applications and renewals electronically as if the same were submitted in hard copy format.
All members of any board, commission or council that licenses, certifies or regulates any profession or occupation shall, during the time of their respective appointments, be citizens of this state. The appointment of any member of any board, commission or council that licenses or certifies any profession or occupation shall terminate when Tennessee is no longer the domicile of such member.
(1) Upon receiving a copy of a final order as provided in subsection (b) from the Tennessee student assistance corporation (TSAC) or a guarantee agency that has an agreement with the United States secretary of education (guarantee agency), each board, commission, committee, agency or other governmental entity (licensing authority) created pursuant to this title shall suspend, deny or revoke the license of, or take other such appropriate disciplinary action, against any person (also referred to as the debtor), who has defaulted on a repayment or service obligation under any federal family education loan program, the federal Higher Education Act of 1965, a student loan guaranteed or administered by the Tennessee student assistance corporation or any other state or federal educational loan or service-conditional scholarship program.
(2) Notwithstanding subdivision (a)(1), a licensing authority may elect not to suspend, deny, or revoke the license of a person if the default or delinquency is the result of a medical hardship that prevented the person from working in the person's licensed field and the medical hardship significantly contributed to the default or delinquency.
(b)
(1) Each board, commission, committee, agency or other governmental entity created pursuant to this title shall accept any determination of default from TSAC or a guarantee agency, after TSAC or the guarantee agency has afforded a debtor an opportunity to be heard in accordance with subdivision (b)(2); and such board, commission, committee, agency or other governmental entity shall rescind any disciplinary action and restore any license or certificate upon receiving notice from such corporation or guarantee agency that the person has agreed to serve such person's obligation or is in compliance with an approved repayment plan.
(2)
(A) Unless a debtor has made satisfactory arrangements according to the lender, TSAC or the guarantee agency, which may include administrative wage garnishment, voluntary payment arrangements or deferment/forbearance, then the debtor shall be regarded as delinquent or in default. If a debtor is delinquent or in default on a repayment or service obligation under a guaranteed student loan identified in subsection (a) or such debtor has failed to enter into a payment plan or comply with a payment plan previously approved by TSAC or the guarantee agency, then TSAC or the guarantee agency shall issue to such debtor a notice of intent to file an order with the appropriate licensing authority to suspend, deny or revoke the debtor's license or certificate. The notice must:
(i) Be served upon the debtor personally or by certified mail with return receipt requested; and
(ii) State that the debtor's license or certificate will be suspended, denied or revoked ninety (90) days after service, unless within that time the debtor:
(a) Pays the entire debt stated in the notice;
(b) Enters into a payment plan or complies with a payment plan previously entered into and approved by TSAC or the guarantee agency; or
(c) Requests a hearing before TSAC or the guarantee agency.
(B) Any such hearing request by the debtor shall be made in writing and must be received by TSAC or the guarantee agency within twenty (20) days of the date the notice is served.
(C) TSAC, or the guarantee agency, upon receipt of a request for a hearing from the debtor, shall schedule a hearing to determine whether suspension, denial or revocation of the debtor's license or certificate is appropriate. The debtor's license or certificate may not be suspended, denied or revoked until a determination is reached following the hearing. The only issues that may be determined in such hearing are:
(i) The amount of the debt, if any;
(ii) Whether the debtor is delinquent or in default;
(iii) Whether the debtor has entered into a payment plan or the debtor is willing to enter into a payment plan or to comply with a payment plan previously entered into and approved by TSAC or the guarantee agency; and
(iv) Whether the debtor's default or delinquency is the result of a medical hardship that prevented the debtor from working in the debtor's licensed field and the medical hardship significantly contributed to the default or delinquency.
(D) If a debtor fails to respond to such notice of intent, fails to timely request a hearing or fails to appear at a regularly scheduled hearing, the debtor's defenses, objections or request for a payment plan or compliance with a payment plan may be determined to be without merit, and TSAC or the guarantee agency shall enter a final decision and order, requesting suspension, denial or revocation of the debtor's license or certificate and further requesting the licensing authority to order the debtor to refrain from engaging in the licensed activity or activity for which a certificate has been issued. TSAC or the guarantee agency shall send a copy of such order to the licensing authority and the debtor.
(E) All such administrative hearings shall be conducted in the same manner as those conducted pursuant to §§ 36-5-703§§ 36-5-703 and 36-5-704.
(F)
(i) When TSAC or the guarantee agency determines that the debt is paid in full or the debtor has entered into a payment plan or complied with a payment plan previously approved by TSAC or the guarantee agency, TSAC or the guarantee agency shall terminate the order suspending, denying or revoking the license or certificate. TSAC or the guarantee agency shall send a copy of the order terminating the suspension, denial or revocation to the licensing authority and the debtor. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, rule or regulation to the contrary, when the license or certificate is reinstated, the licensing authority shall not impose a reinstatement fee that exceeds fifty dollars ($50.00).
(ii) Entry of an order terminating suspension, denial or revocation of a license or certificate does not limit the ability of TSAC or the guarantee agency to issue a new order suspending, denying or revoking the license or certificate of the same debtor in the event of another delinquency or default.
(G) TSAC is authorized to promulgate necessary rules and regulations in accordance with the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5, to implement this subsection (b).
(c) Each board, commission, committee, agency or other governmental entity created pursuant to this title shall promulgate rules and regulations to effectuate the purposes of this section.
(a) Any board regulated by this title may authorize any of its members or its designee to conduct a review of the qualifications of an applicant for a license to practice such profession in this state and to make an initial determination as to whether the applicant has met all the requirements for licensure. If the board member or board designee determines that the applicant has met all the requirements for a license, the board member or board designee has the authority to issue to such applicant a temporary authorization to practice, and, once the temporary authorization is issued, the applicant is then authorized to practice such profession in this state until the board makes a final decision on the application for a license. Such temporary authorization, once issued, shall be deemed to be a valid license for all purposes, granting to the applicant all rights that would attach if the person had been issued a permanent license at that time. The board may authorize the use of this procedure with respect to an applicant for an initial license, temporary permit, temporary license, renewal of license and license reinstatement if the issuance of temporary permits, temporary licenses, renewal of license and license reinstatement is otherwise authorized by such board's practice statutes. In no event shall the temporary authorization issued pursuant to an initial determination made by a board member or a board designee be effective for longer than a six-month period measured from the date of issuance. The applicant shall not utilize this process for the same reason more than once.
(b) If temporary authorization, pursuant to subsection (a), is issued to an applicant and if the subsequent decision of the board is to deny the application based upon a determination that the applicant has not complied with all the requirements for licensure, then the initial approval from that point forward shall immediately become null and void, and the applicant shall be notified immediately. In this event, the doctrine of estoppel shall not apply against the state based upon its issuance of temporary authorization and its subsequent denial of licensure.
(a) Each board, commission, committee, agency or other governmental entity created pursuant to this title incurring a vacancy shall notify the appointing authority in writing within ninety (90) days after the vacancy. All vacancies, other than ex officio members, on any board, commission, committee, agency or other governmental entity created pursuant to this title shall be filled by the appointing authority within ninety (90) days of receiving written notice of the vacancy and sufficient information is provided for the appointing authority to make an informed decision in regard to filling such vacancy. If sufficient information has been provided and a board, commission, committee, agency or other governmental entity created pursuant to this title has more than one (1) vacancy that is more than one hundred eighty (180) days in duration, such board, commissioner, committee, agency or other governmental entity shall report to the house and senate government operations committees why such vacancies have not been filled.
(b) If more than one-half (½) of the positions on any board, commission, committee, agency or other governmental entity created pursuant to this title are vacant for more than one hundred eighty (180) consecutive days, such board, commission, committee, agency or other governmental entity shall terminate. Such board, commission, committee, agency or other governmental entity shall wind up its affairs pursuant to § 4-29-112. If a board, commission, committee, agency or other governmental entity created pursuant to this title is terminated pursuant to this subsection (b), it shall be reviewed by the evaluation committees pursuant to the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled at title 4, chapter 5, before ceasing all its activities. Nothing in this section shall prohibit the general assembly from continuing, restructuring, or reestablishing a board, commission, committee, agency or other governmental entity created pursuant to this title.
(a) In addition to any existing authority regarding the requirement to pay costs in disciplinary proceedings, when the division or any board, council or committee created pursuant to this title and/or title 68, chapters 24 and 29 and regulated under the authority of the department of health imposes sanctions on a license or certificate holder in any disciplinary contested case proceeding, the license or certificate holder may, at the discretion of the division, board, council or committee before which the contested case proceeding was held be required to pay the actual and reasonable costs of the investigation and prosecution of the case, which shall include, but not be limited to, the following:
(1) All costs absorbed by the division or attributed to and assessed against the board, council or committee by the division's bureau of investigations in connection with the prosecution of the matter including all investigator time, travel and lodging incurred during the prosecution;
(2) All costs absorbed by the division or assessed against the board, council or committee by the division for the use of the division facilities and personnel for prosecution of the matter;
(3) All costs assessed against the division, board, council or committee for the appearance fees, transcripts, time, travel and lodging of administrative law judges and court reporters and witnesses required in the prosecution of the matter; and
(4) All costs attributed to and assessed against the division, board, council or committee by the department's office of general counsel in connection with the prosecution of the matter, including all attorney and paralegal time, travel and lodging incurred during the prosecution of the matter.
(b) The division, board or committee shall include in any order in which the payment of costs has been assessed an amount that is the maximum amount owed by the license or certificate holder at the time the order is entered. Prior to the expiration of sixty (60) days from the effective date of the order, the division, council, board or committee shall send to the license or certificate holder, by certified mail, return receipt requested, and by regular United States mail, a final costs assessment that does not exceed the maximum amount in the order.
(c)
(1) In addition to the authority contained in this section, when a party seeks judicial review of a state agency decision under § 4-5-322 or the chancery court decision under § 4-5-323, then the court, or the board, committee, or council if the matter is remanded to the agency, upon finding that a sanction of the license or certificate holder is appropriate, may require the license or certificate holder to pay the actual and reasonable costs incurred by the division or agency for the judicial review, including costs for the time, travel, and lodging of the office of the attorney general, court reporter and transcript costs, and court costs. The order must reflect the maximum amount owed by the license or certificate holder for the judicial review.
(2) A chancery court shall not award costs pursuant to this subsection (c) unless the court determines that:
(A)
(i) The claims asserted in the petition for judicial review are not warranted by existing law nor by a nonfrivolous argument for the extension or modification of existing law; and
(ii) The claims asserted in the petition for judicial review do not have evidentiary support; or
(B) The license or certificate holder petitioned for judicial review to harass, cause unnecessary delay, or cause needless expense to the state or state agency.
Consistent with this title, the boards of the respective branches of the healing arts shall promulgate rules and regulations in accordance with the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5, and this title to regulate the nature, manner, content and extent of advertising and the use of titles by practitioners of such healing arts who are under the jurisdiction of such boards, including advertising pertaining to board certification and specialty. Those boards that have already adopted such rules and regulations are not required to adopt additional rules and regulations, unless and until deemed necessary and appropriate by those boards.
Consistent with this title, the boards of the respective branches of the healing arts are hereby authorized to promulgate rules and regulations in accordance with the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5, which establish sanctions for violations of this chapter by members of the professions the boards regulate. Such sanctions may include civil penalties, suspension or revocation of license.
Any board of an allied health care profession, for allied health professionals as defined by United States Code, title 42, chapter 6A, subchapter V, part F, § 295p (42 U.S.C. § 295p), within the division of health related boards as set out in § 68-1-101, is authorized to enter into grants, agreements, scholarships or other arrangements with statewide nonprofit agencies or other state agencies for the purpose of evaluating and guiding the development of the education, distribution and availability of the allied health care workforce under the regulation of that board to provide a basis for improving the delivery of quality health care.
(a) A restriction on the right of an employed or contracted healthcare provider to practice the healthcare provider's profession upon termination or conclusion of the employment or contractual relationship shall be deemed reasonable if:
(1) The restriction is set forth in an employment agreement or other written document signed by the healthcare provider and the employing or contracting entity; and
(2) The duration of the restriction is two (2) years or less and either:
(A) The maximum allowable geographic restriction is the greater of:
(i) A ten-mile radius from the primary practice site of the healthcare provider while employed or contracted; or
(ii) The county in which the primary practice of the healthcare provider while employed or contracted is located; or
(B) There is no geographic restriction, but the healthcare provider is restricted from practicing the healthcare provider's profession at any facility at which the employing or contracting entity provided services while the healthcare provider was employed or contracted with the employing or contracting entity.
(b) An agreement entered into in conjunction with the purchase or sale of a healthcare provider's practice, or all or substantially all of the assets of the healthcare provider's practice, may restrict the healthcare provider's right to practice the healthcare provider's profession; provided, that the duration of the restriction and the allowable area of the restriction are reasonable under the circumstances. There shall be a rebuttable presumption that the duration and area of restriction agreed upon by the parties in such an agreement are reasonable.
(c) This section shall apply to healthcare providers licensed under chapters 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9 and 11 of this title.
(d) This section shall not apply to physicians who specialize in the practice of emergency medicine.
(a) On and after October 1, 2010, before employing or contracting with any person who would be providing direct patient care, for whom a background check has not been completed, a health care professional licensed under any chapter of this title or title 68, chapters 24 and 140, shall initiate and perform a “registry check” which for the purposes of this section is defined as:
(1) A state-by-state look in any state in which the person has lived in the previous seven (7) years of the national sex offender public registry website coordinated by the United States department of justice, including, but not limited to, the sexual offender registry maintained by the Tennessee bureau of investigation pursuant to title 40, chapter 39, part 2; and
(2) Any adult abuse registry maintained for any state in which the person has lived in the previous seven (7) years; and
(3) The department of health's elder abuse registry established pursuant to title 68, chapter 11, part 10.
(b) Should an applicant be listed on any of the registries listed in subdivisions (a)(1)-(3), the health care professional shall not employ or contract with the person if the person would be providing direct patient care.
(c) A health care professional who complies with the requirements to perform registry checks under subsection (a), or relies on a documented representation provided by an entity with which the health care professional contracts that the person who will work in the office is not on any of these registries, shall not be subject to civil or criminal liability solely based upon the information provided through a registry check under this section. This immunity shall extend to a claim related to the professional's refusal to employ or contract with a person based on information obtained from a registry check.
(d) This section is not intended to apply to contracted, external staff who provide such services as cleaning services, maintenance of office or medical equipment or other services where direct patient contact is not intended.
(e) This section shall not apply to health care professionals licensed chapter 12 of this title.
(f) The department of health shall post no later than October 1, 2010, in a conspicuous location on its website as well as the website of each applicable licensing board a link to all potential databases the health care professional would be required to check pursuant to subsection (a). In addition, each applicable licensing board shall notify all of its licensees at least annually through board newsletters of their obligations under this section.
(a) This section shall not apply to §§ 63-4-118, 63-5-131, 63-10-402 — 63-10-405, 63-11-220, 63-12-138 and 68-11-272.
(b) It is the policy of this state to encourage the improvement of patient safety and quality and the evaluation of the quality, safety, cost, processes and necessity of healthcare services by healthcare providers and by other entities. This state further recognizes that certain protections must be available to these providers and entities to ensure that they are able to effectively pursue these measures.
(c) As used in this section:
(1) “Healthcare organization” means any:
(A) State or local health professional association or society;
(B) Professional assistance program providing, or attempting to provide, intervention, counseling, referral or other assistance to any healthcare provider or family of a healthcare provider directly related to and including the alcohol or drug impairment of a healthcare provider;
(C) Healthcare provider malpractice support group;
(D) Group practice that is engaged in the provision of healthcare services;
(E) Entity engaged in the provision of healthcare provider services or healthcare provider staffing to licensed healthcare entities, including hospitals;
(F) Professional healthcare foundation;
(G) Individual practice association made up of practices the members of which are engaged in the provision of health care;
(H) Health maintenance organization, preferred provider organization, hospital and medical service corporation, or accountable care organization as defined by § 3022 of the federal Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, P.L. 111-148, as amended;
(I) Entity that contracts with a healthcare organization to perform any of the functions of a quality improvement committee;
(J) Any patient safety organization listed as such by the federal secretary of health and human services pursuant to § 924 of the Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005, P.L. 109-41, as amended;
(K) University medical school or health science center;
(L) Community mental health center as defined in § 33-1-101; or
(M) Federally qualified health center as defined in 42 U.S.C. § 1396d(l)(2)(B);
(2) “Healthcare provider” means any healthcare professional licensed, authorized, certified or regulated under this title, including, but not limited to, medical resident physicians, interns, and fellows participating in a training program of one (1) of the accredited medical schools or of one (1) of such medical school's affiliated teaching hospitals in this state, or any other clinical staff of a healthcare organization;
(3) “Quality improvement committee” or “QIC” means a committee formed or retained by a healthcare organization, an activity of a healthcare organization, or one (1) or more individuals employed by a healthcare organization performing the types of functions listed in subdivisions (c)(3)(A)-(P), the purpose of which, or one (1) of the purposes of which is to evaluate the safety, quality, processes, costs, appropriateness, or necessity of healthcare services by performing functions, including, but not limited to:
(A) Evaluation and improvement of the quality of healthcare services rendered;
(B) Determination that health services rendered were professionally indicated or were performed in compliance with applicable standards of care;
(C) Determination that the cost of health care rendered was considered reasonable;
(D) Evaluation of the qualifications, credentials, competence and performance of healthcare providers or action upon matters relating to the discipline of any individual healthcare provider;
(E) Reduction of morbidity or mortality;
(F) Establishment and enforcement of guidelines designed to keep the cost of health care within reasonable bounds;
(G) Research;
(H) Evaluation of whether facilities are being properly utilized;
(I) Supervision, education, discipline, admission, and the determination of privileges of healthcare providers;
(J) Review of professional qualifications or activities of healthcare providers;
(K) Evaluation of the quantity, quality and timeliness of healthcare services rendered to patients;
(L) Evaluation, review or improvement of methods, procedures or treatments being utilized;
(M) Intervention, support or rehabilitative referrals or services to healthcare providers;
(N) Evaluation as to whether to report an unusual incident pursuant to § 63-6-221 or § 63-9-117 or to evaluate and improve the quality of health care rendered by healthcare providers related to the submission of an unusual incident report;
(O) Activities to determine the healthcare organization's compliance with state or federal regulations; or
(P) Participation in utilization review activities, including participation in review activities within the healthcare organization and activities in conjunction with an insurer or utilization review agent under title 56, chapter 6, part 7; and
(4) “Records” means records of interviews and all reports, incident reports, statements, minutes, memoranda, charts, statistics, evaluations, critiques, test results, corrective actions, disciplinary actions and any and all other documentation generated in connection with the activities of a QIC.
(d)
(1) Records of a QIC and testimony or statements by a healthcare organization's officers or directors, trustees, healthcare providers, administrative staff, employees or other committee members or attendees relating to activities of the QIC shall be confidential and privileged and shall be protected from direct or indirect means of discovery, subpoena or admission into evidence in any judicial or administrative proceeding. Any person who supplies information, testifies or makes statements as part of a QIC may not be required to provide information as to the information, testimony or statements provided to or made before such a committee or opinions formed by such person as a result of committee participation.
(2) Any information, documents or records, which are not produced for use by a QIC or which are not produced by persons acting on behalf of a QIC, and are otherwise available from original sources, shall not be construed as immune from discovery or use in any judicial or administrative proceedings merely because such information, documents or records were presented during proceedings of such committee.
(3) A QIC may share information and documents, including complaints, incident reports, and testimony and statements by any person to the QIC, with one (1) or more other QICs as defined under this section or under § 68-11-272. Information and documents disclosed by one (1) QIC to another QIC, and any information and documents created or maintained as a result of the sharing of such information and documents, shall be confidential, privileged and protected from direct or indirect means of discovery, subpoena or admission into evidence, to the same extent as provided in subdivision (d)(1). The QIC sharing such information with another QIC shall determine the manner and process by which it will share such information and documents, which process may include requiring a written agreement between QICs regarding the sharing of practitioner information. The QIC and its sponsoring healthcare organization shall not be held liable and are immune from suit for any disclosure or sharing of information in compliance with this section.
(e) No healthcare organization or its officers, trustees, directors, healthcare providers, administrative staff, employees, other committee members or attendees, or any person providing information to a QIC shall be held liable:
(1) In any action for damages or other relief and is immune from liability arising from the provision of information to a QIC or in any judicial or administrative proceeding if the information is provided to the QIC in good faith and without malice and on the basis of facts reasonably known or reasonably believed to exist; or
(2) In any action for damages or other relief and is immune from liability resulting from any decisions, opinions, actions, and proceedings rendered, entered or acted upon by a QIC undertaken or performed within the scope or function of the duties of such committees or in any judicial or administrative proceeding, if made or taken in good faith and without malice and on the basis of facts reasonably known or reasonably believed to exist.
(f) A professional assistance program also advocates for healthcare professionals before other QICs, healthcare entities, private and governmental insurance carriers, national or local certification and accreditation bodies, and the state health-related boards of this or any other state. The disclosure of confidential, privileged QIC information to such entities during advocacy or as a report to the health-related boards, or to the affected healthcare provider under review, does not constitute either a waiver of confidentiality or privilege.
(g) Any person providing information to a QIC is presumed to have acted in good faith and without malice. Any person alleging lack of good faith has the burden of proving bad faith and malice.
(h) All decisions, opinions, actions and proceedings rendered, entered or acted upon by a QIC are presumed to have been completed in good faith and without malice. Any person alleging lack of good faith has the burden of proving bad faith and malice.
(1) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter or of chapter 3, chapters 5-9 or chapter 19 of this title, when a practitioner licensed under any of such chapters is under state or federal indictment in this state for an offense involving the sale or dispensing of controlled substances under state or federal law, the practitioner shall report the indictment to the practitioner's licensing board in writing within seven (7) calendar days of acquiring actual knowledge of the indictment. Such report shall include the jurisdiction in which the indictment is pending, if known, and shall also be accompanied by a copy of the indictment, if the practitioner has one.
(2) A district attorney general and appropriate attorneys for the federal government are strongly encouraged, when appropriate, to promptly notify a practitioner's licensing board when a practitioner covered under subdivision (a)(1) is indicted in this state for an offense involving the sale or dispensing of controlled substances under state or federal law.
(b) The knowing failure of a practitioner to submit the report required in subdivision (a)(1) to the licensing board shall be considered unprofessional, dishonorable or unethical conduct and may be grounds for such licensing board to take disciplinary action against the practitioner's license. The fact an indictment was sealed and the practitioner could not have actual knowledge of its existence excuses the practitioner from discipline based on the failure of the practitioner to submit a report. However, the claim that the practitioner was not aware of the obligation required in subdivision (a)(1) may not excuse the practitioner from discipline based on the failure of the practitioner to submit a report.
(c) Upon receiving a report of an indictment pursuant to subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2) or from any other source, the practitioner's licensing board, through the board's consultant or other person designated by the board, shall within fifteen (15) calendar days, conduct an expedited review of the practitioner's conduct alleged in the indictment. The purpose of such expedited review shall be to determine if the matter merits an expedited investigation by the board. If so, such a directive shall be given to the department of health's office of investigations. All review activity under this subsection (c) shall be confidential pursuant to § 63-1-117(f).
(d) For the purposes of this section, “controlled substances” means substances regulated as controlled substances under title 39, chapter 17, part 4, or title 53, chapters 10 and 11, or the federal Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. § 801, et seq.).
(1) “Drug-related overdose” means an acute condition, including mania, hysteria, extreme physical illness, coma, unresponsiveness, decreased level of consciousness, respiratory depression, or death resulting from the consumption or use of a controlled substance, or another substance with which a controlled substance was combined, and that a layperson would reasonably believe to be a drug overdose that requires medical assistance; and
(2) “Opioid antagonist” means a formulation of naloxone hydrochloride or another similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by the United States food and drug administration for the treatment of a drug-related overdose.
(b) A licensed healthcare practitioner otherwise authorized to prescribe an opioid antagonist acting in good faith and exercising reasonable care may, directly or by standing order, prescribe an opioid antagonist to the following:
(1) An individual at risk of experiencing a drug-related overdose;
(2) A family member, friend, or other individual in a position to assist an individual at risk of experiencing a drug-related overdose; or
(3) An organization, municipal or county entity, including, but not limited to, a center, recovery organization, hospital, school, harm reduction organization, homeless services organization, county jail, shelter, AIDS service organization, federally qualified health center, rural health clinic, health department, or treatment resource, for the purpose of providing an opioid antagonist to an individual who meets the criteria of subdivision (b)(1) or (b)(2).
(c) Notwithstanding another law or rule, an individual or entity acting under a standing order may:
(1) Receive and store an opioid antagonist; and
(2) Provide the opioid antagonist, directly or indirectly, and at no cost to the recipient, to an individual described in subdivision (b)(1) or (b)(2).
(d) An individual may administer an opioid antagonist to another individual if:
(1) The individual has a good faith belief that the other individual is experiencing a drug-related overdose; and
(2) The individual exercises reasonable care in administering the opioid antagonist to the other individual.
(e) The commissioner of health or the commissioner's designee, in consultation with other state, federal, or local government personnel, including contractors, shall create and maintain an online education program with the goal of educating laypersons and the general public on the administration of opioid antagonists and appropriate techniques and follow-up procedures for dealing with a drug-related overdose.
(f) The following individuals and entities are immune from civil liability in the absence of gross negligence or willful misconduct for actions authorized by this section:
(1) A licensed healthcare practitioner who prescribes, dispenses, or issues a standing order for an opioid antagonist pursuant to subsection (b);
(2) An individual or entity that provides an opioid antagonist pursuant to subsection (c); and
(3) A licensed healthcare practitioner or other individual who administers an opioid antagonist pursuant to subsection (d).
(g) A licensed healthcare practitioner is immune from disciplinary or adverse administrative action under this title in the absence of gross negligence or willful misconduct for an act or omission during the administration of, prescription of, issuance of a standing order for, or dispensing of an opioid antagonist.
(h) The commissioner of health or the commissioner's designee shall make available recommendations for training of first responders, as defined in § 29-34-203, in the appropriate use of opioid antagonists. The recommendations must include a provision concerning the appropriate supply of opioid antagonists to first responders to administer consistent with this section.
(i) Notwithstanding another law or rule, a first responder acting under a standing order may receive and store an opioid antagonist and may provide an opioid antagonist to an individual described in subdivision (b)(1) or (b)(2).
(j) Emergency medical services shall take an individual treated for a drug-related overdose with an opioid antagonist by a first responder to a medical facility for evaluation, unless the individual is competent to refuse medical treatment and chooses to refuse treatment.
(1) “Cosmetic medical service” means any service that uses a biologic or synthetic material, a chemical application, a mechanical device, or a displaced energy form of any kind that alters or damages, or is capable of altering or damaging, living tissue to improve the patient's appearance or achieve an enhanced aesthetic result;
(2) “Media” or “advertising” means oral, written and other types of communication disseminated for the purpose of soliciting medical services. These communications include, but are not limited to, newspaper or magazine advertisement, telephone directory displays, printed brochures or leaflets, websites, email correspondence, and television or radio announcements;
(3) “Medical director” or “supervising physician” means a physician who:
(A) Holds an active medical license under chapter 6 or 9 of this title in this state;
(B) Has an active medical practice in this state; and
(C) Is responsible for the provision of or supervises the provision of cosmetic medical services; and
(4) “Medical spa” means any entity, however named or organized, which offers or performs cosmetic medical services; provided, that a medical spa shall not include an individual physician's office or practice owned by a physician.
(b) Any entity doing business as or advertised as a medical spa shall display the name of the medical director or supervising physician and shall indicate one of the following by signage at its practice site and in its media and advertising:
(1) Whether the medical director or supervising physician is certified or eligible for certification by a private or public board, parent association, multidisciplinary board or association that is a member of the American Board of Medical Specialties (ABMS) or the American Osteopathic Association (AOA);
(2) Whether the medical director or supervising physician is certified by a board or association with equivalent requirements to the ABMS or AOA as approved and recognized by the board of medical examiners or the board of osteopathic examination, as appropriate; or
(3) Whether the medical director or supervising physician is certified by a board or association requiring an Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education (ACGME) or AOA approved training program that provides complete training in the specialty or subspecialty certified, followed by prerequisite certification by a certifying board of the ABMS or AOA in that training field and successful completion of an additional examination in the specialty or subspecialty certified.
(c) If the medical director or supervising physician is not certified by any of the entities identified in subsection (b), then the lack of certification shall be displayed by signage at its practice site and in its media and advertising.
(a) Except as provided in § 63-1-313, a health care prescriber licensed under this title may not dispense an opioid or benzodiazepine. This section shall not apply to:
(1) The dispensing of complimentary packages of medicinal drugs that are labeled as a drug sample or complimentary drug to the practitioner's own patients in the regular course of practice without the payment of a fee or remuneration of any kind;
(2) The dispensing of opioids or benzodiazepines in the health care system of the department of correction;
(3) The dispensing of opioids or benzodiazepines in connection with the performance of a surgical procedure performed at a licensed health care facility. The amount dispensed pursuant to this subdivision (a)(3) may not exceed a seven-day supply. This exception does not allow for the dispensing of an opioid or benzodiazepine more than seven (7) days after the performance of the surgical procedure;
(4) The dispensing of opioids or benzodiazepines pursuant to an approved clinical trial. For purposes of this subsection (a), the term “approved clinical trial” means a clinical research study or clinical investigation that, in whole or in part, is state or federally funded or is conducted under an investigational new drug application that is reviewed by the United States food and drug administration;
(5) The dispensing of an opioid drug in a nonresidential substitution-based treatment center for opiate addiction, as defined in § 68-11-1602;
(6) The dispensing of an opioid or benzodiazepine to a patient of a facility that is licensed by the board for licensing health care facilities pursuant to § 68-11-202;
(7) The dispensing of an opioid or benzodiazepine to a patient of a facility licensed under title 33;
(8) The dispensing of an opioid or benzodiazepine by a physician practice that provides healthcare services that:
(A) Dispenses opioids and benzodiazepines, as directed by the patient's prescription, in safety-sealed, prepackaged containers stamped with the manufacturer's national drug code (NDC) number;
(B) Administers and records pill-counts for opioids or benzodiazepines in order to ensure patient compliance with the prescription;
(C) Dispenses noncontrolled substances which amount to at least fifty percent (50%) of the prescriptions filled annually from the practice; and
(D) Submits controlled substance dispensing information to the controlled substances monitoring database under the Tennessee Prescription Safety Act of 2016, compiled in title 53, chapter 10, part 3, according to the requirements of state law; or
(9) The dispensing of an opioid or benzodiazepine by a veterinarian in the course of the veterinarian's practice.
(b) Within ten (10) days after January 1, 2015, each medical practitioner licensed under this title, unless the practitioner meets one (1) of the exceptions listed in subsection (a), shall ensure that the undispensed inventory of opioids and benzodiazepines purchased under the prescriber's drug enforcement administration number for dispensing is:
(1) Returned in compliance with this section to a licensed third party reverse distributor; or
(2) Turned in to local law enforcement agencies and abandoned.
(c) Wholesalers shall buy back the undispensed inventory of opioids and benzodiazepines, which are in the manufacturer's original packing, unopened, and in date, in accordance with the established policies of the wholesaler or the contractual terms between the wholesaler and the practitioner concerning returns.
(A) An individual acting within the scope of a valid license issued pursuant to this title;
(B) A state-contracted crisis service provider that is employed by a facility licensed under title 33;
(C) An alcohol and drug abuse counselor licensed under title 68, chapter 24, part 6; or
(D) A graduate who has completed, or a student actively enrolled in, a professional training program the educational standards of which meet the training requirements for a license under this title or title 68, chapter 24, part 6, as long as the graduate or student:
(i) Is providing telehealth services for the purpose of obtaining hours required for licensure or of otherwise fulfilling the educational requirements to apply for licensure; and
(ii) Is, at all times, supervised by an individual who is licensed under this title or title 68, chapter 24, part 6, with an unencumbered license;
(2) “Store-and-forward telemedicine services” means the use of asynchronous computer-based communications, which may include the transfer of medical data in an image captured or created by a camera or similar device, between a healthcare provider and patient for the purpose of diagnosis, consultation, or treatment of the patient at a distant site where there may be no in-person exchange between the healthcare provider and the patient; and
(3) “Telehealth,” “telemedicine,” and “provider-based telemedicine” mean:
(A) The use of real time audio, video, or other electronic media and telecommunication technology that enables interaction between a healthcare provider and a patient for the purpose of diagnosis, consultation, or treatment of a patient at a distant site where there may be no in-person exchange between a healthcare provider and a patient; or
(B) Store-and-forward telemedicine services.
(b) For the purposes of this section, a healthcare provider-patient relationship with respect to telemedicine or telehealth is created by mutual consent and mutual communication, except in an emergency, between the patient and the provider. The consent by the patient may be expressed or implied consent; however, the provider-patient relationship is not created simply by the receipt of patient health information by a provider unless a prior provider-patient relationship exists. The duties and obligations created by the relationship do not arise until the healthcare provider:
(1) Affirmatively undertakes to diagnose or treat the patient; or
(2) Affirmatively participates in the diagnosis or treatment.
(c)
(1)
(A) A healthcare provider who delivers services through the use of telehealth is held to the same standard of professional practice as a similar licensee of the same practice area or specialty that is providing the same healthcare services through in-person encounters, and nothing in this section is intended to create any new standards of care.
(B) Notwithstanding subdivision (c)(1)(A), telehealth services must be provided in compliance with the guidelines created pursuant to part 4 of this chapter.
(2) The board or licensing entity governing any healthcare provider covered by this section shall not establish a more restrictive standard of professional practice for the practice of telehealth than that specifically authorized by the provider's practice act or other specifically applicable statute, including this chapter or title 53, chapter 10 or 11.
(3) This section does not apply to pain management clinics, as defined in § 63-1-301, chronic nonmalignant pain treatment, or those individuals licensed pursuant to chapter 12 of this title.
(d) Sections 63-6-231 and 63-6-214(b)(21) do not apply to the practice of telemedicine under this section.
(e) This section does not apply to or restrict the requirements of the Tennessee Abortion-Inducing Drug Risk Protocol Act, compiled in chapter 6, part 11 of this title.
(f) Section 63-6-204(a) also applies to telemedicine.
(g)
(1) Except as provided in subdivisions (g)(2) and (3), to practice under this section a healthcare provider must be licensed to practice in this state or be a graduate or student meeting the requirements of subdivision (a)(1)(D).
(2) A physician must be licensed to practice under chapter 6 or 9 of this title in order to practice telemedicine pursuant to § 63-6-209(b), except as otherwise authorized by law or rule.
(3) An individual licensed in another state who would, if licensed in this state, qualify as a healthcare provider under subsection (a) may practice telehealth under this section while providing healthcare services on a volunteer basis through a free clinic pursuant to title 63, chapter 6, part 7.
(h) [Deleted by its own terms effective April 1, 2022.]
(i) Subdivision (a)(1)(A) does not prohibit a healthcare provider otherwise acting within the scope of practice of a valid license issued pursuant to this title from delivering services through the use of telehealth.
(j) A healthcare provider who is authorized to prescribe buprenorphine under federal law shall not prescribe via telehealth a buprenorphine product, as approved by the federal food and drug administration for use in recovery or medication-assisted treatment, unless:
(1) The healthcare provider is employed by or contracted with:
(A) A licensed nonresidential office-based opiate treatment facility or licensed nonresidential opioid treatment program, as defined in § 33-2-402;
(B) A community mental health center, as defined in § 33-1-101;
(C) A federally qualified health center, as defined in § 63-10-601;
(D) A hospital licensed under title 68 or 33; or
(E) The bureau of TennCare's comprehensive enhanced buprenorphine treatment network; and
(2) The delivery of telehealth is being provided on behalf of the entity that employs or contracts with the provider.
(1) “Controlled substance” means a drug, substance, or immediate precursor identified, defined, or listed in title 39, chapter 17, part 4 and title 53, chapter 11;
(2) “Drug overdose” means an acute condition, including, but not limited to, extreme physical illness, decreased level of consciousness, respiratory depression, coma, mania, or death, resulting from the consumption or use of a controlled substance, or other substance inhaled, ingested, injected, or otherwise introduced into the body by the distressed individual that a reasonable person would believe to be resulting from the consumption or use of a controlled substance or other substance by the distressed individual;
(3) “Drug violation” means:
(A) A violation of § 39-17-418; or
(B) A violation of § 39-17-425;
(4) “Medical assistance” means aid provided to a person by a healthcare professional licensed, registered, or certified under the laws of this state who, acting within the person's lawful scope of practice, may provide diagnosis, treatment, or emergency medical services; and
(5) “Seeks medical assistance” means:
(A) Accesses or assists in accessing medical assistance or the 911 system;
(B) Contacts or assists in contacting law enforcement or a poison control center; or
(C) Provides care or contacts or assists in contacting any person or entity to provide care while awaiting the arrival of medical assistance to aid a person who is experiencing or believed to be experiencing a drug overdose.
(b) Any person who in good faith seeks medical assistance for a person experiencing or believed to be experiencing a drug overdose shall not be arrested, charged, or prosecuted for a drug violation if the evidence for the arrest, charge, or prosecution of the drug violation resulted from seeking such medical assistance. Any person who is experiencing a drug overdose and who in good faith seeks medical assistance for or is the subject of a request for medical assistance shall not be arrested, charged, or prosecuted for a drug violation if the evidence for the arrest, charge, or prosecution of the drug violation resulted from seeking such medical assistance. This immunity from being arrested, charged, or prosecuted shall apply to the person experiencing a drug overdose on the person's first such drug overdose. This immunity from being arrested, charged, or prosecuted may be applied if the person experiences subsequent drug overdoses at the discretion of the responding law enforcement officer or the district attorney general's office. Any such person shall also not be subject to the following, if related to the seeking of medical assistance:
(1) Penalties for a violation of a permanent or temporary protective order or restraining order; or
(2) Sanctions for a violation of a condition of pretrial release, condition of probation, or condition of parole based on a drug violation.
(c)
(1) The act of providing first aid or other medical assistance to someone who is experiencing a drug overdose may be used as a mitigating factor in a criminal prosecution for which immunity, set out in subsection (b), is not provided.
(2) Nothing in this section shall limit the admissibility of any evidence in connection with the investigation or prosecution of a crime with regard to a defendant who does not qualify for the protections of subsection (b) or with regard to other crimes committed by a person who otherwise qualifies for the protections of subsection (b).
(3) Nothing in this section shall limit any seizure of evidence or contraband otherwise permitted by law.
(4) Nothing in this section shall limit or abridge the authority of a law enforcement officer to detain or take into custody a person in the course of an investigation or to effectuate an arrest for any offense except as provided in subsection (b).
(1) “Chief medical officer” means the chief medical officer for the department of health;
(2) “Opioid antagonist” means a formulation of naloxone hydrochloride or another similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by the United States food and drug administration for the treatment of a drug-related overdose; and
(3) “Opioid antagonist training program” means a training program approved by the department of health related to opioid antagonist therapy. The training program shall include, but not be limited to, proper administration techniques, use, documentation, and quality assurance.
(b)
(1) The chief medical officer is authorized to implement a statewide collaborative pharmacy practice agreement specific to opioid antagonist therapy with any pharmacist licensed in, and practicing in, this state.
(2) A pharmacist licensed in, and practicing in, this state is authorized to dispense an opioid antagonist, in good faith, pursuant to a valid statewide collaborative pharmacy practice agreement executed by the chief medical officer.
(3) Under a valid statewide collaborative pharmacy practice agreement authorized by the chief medical officer, an authorized pharmacist may dispense an opioid antagonist to:
(A) A person at risk of experiencing a drug-related overdose;
(B) A family member, friend, or other person in a position to assist a person at risk of experiencing a drug-related overdose.
(4) Before a pharmacist enters into a statewide collaborative pharmacy practice agreement with the chief medical officer for the dispensing of an opioid antagonist, the pharmacist shall be able to provide documentation of completion of an opioid antagonist training program within the previous two (2) years.
(5) The pharmacist shall maintain the collaborative pharmacy practice agreement in accordance with the requirements set forth in § 63-10-217, and this agreement must be made available to the department of health upon request.
(6) Any licensed pharmacist acting in good faith and with reasonable care, who dispenses an opioid antagonist to a person the pharmacist believes to be experiencing or at risk of experiencing a drug-related overdose, or who dispenses an opioid antagonist to a family member, friend, or other person in a position to assist a person experiencing or at risk of experiencing a drug-related overdose, is immune from disciplinary or adverse administrative actions under this title for acts or omissions during the dispensation of an opioid antagonist.
(7) Any licensed pharmacist who dispenses an opioid antagonist pursuant to subdivision (b)(2) is immune from civil liability in the absence of gross negligence or willful misconduct for actions authorized by this section.
(8) The chief medical officer shall be immune from disciplinary or adverse administrative actions under this title, as well as civil liability in the absence of gross negligence or willful misconduct, for acts or omissions during the dispensing of an opioid antagonist by a pharmacist acting pursuant to a collaborative agreement established pursuant to this section.
(1) “Epinephrine kit” means a dose of epinephrine and a device for administering the dose of epinephrine;
(2) “Law enforcement agency” has the same meaning as in § 39-13-519;
(3) “Law enforcement officer” has the same meaning as in § 39-11-106; and
(4) “Pharmacist” has the same meaning as in § 63-10-204.
(b) A law enforcement agency may develop an epinephrine-administration protocol in accordance with this section. The epinephrine-administration protocol shall be developed by a physician licensed under chapter 6 or 9 of this title.
(c) For any law enforcement agency that has developed a epinephrine-administration protocol in accordance with subsection (b), a health care prescriber may prescribe epinephrine kits in the name of the law enforcement agency and a pharmacist may dispense epinephrine kits to the law enforcement agency pursuant to a prescription issued in the name of the law enforcement agency.
(d) In coordination with the appropriate local emergency medical services providers and in accordance with this section, a law enforcement officer may possess an epinephrine kit prescribed to the law enforcement officer's law enforcement agency for the purpose of administering epinephrine in an emergency situation to treat anaphylactic reactions if authorized to do so by the officer's law enforcement agency.
(e) A law enforcement officer may administer epinephrine to treat an anaphylactic reaction if the law enforcement officer is authorized to administer epinephrine by the officer's law enforcement agency, has completed the training required by subsection (f) within the past twelve (12) months, and administers the epinephrine in accordance with a protocol adopted by the officer's law enforcement agency in accordance with subsection (b).
(f)
(1) A law enforcement agency shall require that each officer that is authorized to administer epinephrine receive training from qualified medical personnel at least annually. The training shall include:
(A) Patient assessment, including signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock;
(B) Universal precautions;
(C) Rescue breathing;
(D) Seeking medical attention; and
(E) The use of intramuscular epinephrine as detailed in the protocol described in subsection (b).
(2) A law enforcement agency shall keep a record of each officer's participation in training pursuant to this subsection (f).
(g)
(1) A physician shall not be held liable for any injury to an individual who is harmed by the administration of the epinephrine prescribed by the physician pursuant to this section unless the physician acted with reckless disregard for safety.
(2) A law enforcement officer shall not be held liable for any injury to an individual who is harmed by the administration of epinephrine by the law enforcement officer pursuant to this section unless the law enforcement officer acted with reckless disregard for safety.
(3) A law enforcement agency shall not be held liable for any injury to an individual who is harmed by the administration of epinephrine by a law enforcement officer employed by the law enforcement agency pursuant to this section unless the law enforcement agency acted with reckless disregard for safety.
(4) A pharmacist shall not be held liable for any injury to an individual who is harmed by the administration of the epinephrine dispensed by the pharmacist and prescribed by a physician pursuant to this section unless the pharmacist acted with reckless disregard for safety.
(h) A law enforcement officer that administers epinephrine in accordance with this section shall file a record of the event with the appropriate local emergency medical services agency. The record shall include the signs, symptoms, therapies, response, and disposition of the event.
(a) A healthcare provider licensed under this title, with respect to alcohol and drug services, as defined in § 33-2-402, shall not knowingly:
(1) Offer or pay a commission, benefit, rebate, kickback, or bribe, directly or indirectly, in cash or in kind, or engage in any split-fee arrangement, in any form whatsoever, to induce the referral of a patient or patronage to or from:
(A) A licensee or facility licensed under title 33, chapter 2, part 4; or
(B) A recovery residence, an employee of a recovery residence, a nationally recognized recovery residence standards organization or its affiliate, or an employee of a nationally recognized recovery residence standards organization or an employee of its affiliate under title 33, chapter 2, part 14;
(2) Solicit or receive a commission, benefit, rebate, kickback, or bribe, directly or indirectly, in cash or in kind, or engage in any split-fee arrangement, in any form whatsoever, in return for referring a patient or patronage to or from:
(A) A licensee or facility licensed under title 33, chapter 2, part 4; or
(B) A recovery residence, an employee of a recovery residence, a nationally recognized recovery residence standards organization or its affiliate, or an employee of a nationally recognized recovery residence standards organization or an employee of its affiliate under title 33, chapter 2, part 14;
(3) Solicit or receive a commission, benefit, rebate, kickback, or bribe, directly or indirectly, in cash or in kind, or engage in any split-fee arrangement, in any form whatsoever, in return for the acceptance or acknowledgment of treatment from:
(A) A licensee or facility licensed under title 33, chapter 2, part 4; or
(B) A recovery residence, an employee of a recovery residence, a nationally recognized recovery residence standards organization or its affiliate, or an employee of a nationally recognized recovery residence standards organization or an employee of its affiliate under title 33, chapter 2, part 14; or
(4) Aid, abet, advise, or otherwise participate in the conduct prohibited under subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3).
(b) Any healthcare provider licensed under this title, with respect to alcohol and drug services, that violates this section is subject to suspension or revocation of the healthcare provider's license by the appropriate healthcare licensing board and the imposition of civil penalties as authorized under this title.
(a) As used in this section, “electronic prescription” means a written prescription that is generated on an electronic application and is transmitted in accordance with 21 CFR Part 1311.
(b) All written, printed, or electronic prescription orders for a Schedule II controlled substance must contain all information otherwise required by law. The healthcare prescriber must sign the written, printed, or electronic prescription order on the day it is issued. Nothing in this section prevents a healthcare prescriber from issuing a verbal prescription order.
(c) Subject to subsection (d), on or after January 1, 2021, any prescription for a Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled substance issued by a prescriber who is authorized by law to prescribe the drug must be issued as an electronic prescription from the person issuing the prescription to a pharmacy. The name, address, and telephone number of the collaborating physician of an advanced practice registered nurse or physician assistant must be included on electronic prescriptions issued by an advance practice registered nurse or physician assistant.
(d) Subsection (c) does not apply to prescriptions:
(1) Issued by veterinarians;
(2) Issued in circumstances where electronic prescribing is not available due to technological or electrical failure, as set forth in rule;
(3) Issued by a health care prescriber to be dispensed by a pharmacy located outside the state, as set forth in rule;
(4) Issued when the health care prescriber and dispenser are the same entity;
(5) Issued while including elements that are not supported by the most recently implemented version of the National Council for Prescription Drug Programs Prescriber/Pharmacist Interface SCRIPT Standard;
(6) Issued by a health care prescriber for a drug that the federal food and drug administration (FDA) requires the prescription to contain certain elements that are not able to be accomplished with electronic prescribing;
(7) Issued by a health care prescriber allowing for the dispensing of a non-patient-specific prescription pursuant to a standing order, approved protocol for drug therapy, collaborative pharmacy practice agreement in response to a public health emergency, or in other circumstances where the health care prescriber may issue a non-patient-specific prescription;
(8) Issued by a health care prescriber prescribing a drug under a research protocol;
(9) Issued by a health care prescriber who has received a waiver or a renewed waiver for a specified period determined by the commissioner of health, not to exceed one (1) year without renewal by the commissioner, from the requirement to use electronic prescribing, pursuant to a process established in rule by the commissioner, due to economic hardship, technological limitations that are not reasonably within the control of the health care prescriber, or other exceptional circumstance demonstrated by the health care prescriber;
(10) Issued by a health care prescriber under circumstances where, notwithstanding the health care prescriber's present ability to make an electronic prescription as required by this subsection (a), the health care prescriber reasonably determines that it would be impractical for the patient to obtain substances prescribed by electronic prescription in a timely manner, and such delay would adversely impact the patient's medical condition;
(11) Issued by a health care prescriber who issues fifty (50) or fewer prescriptions for Schedule II controlled substances per year.
(e) A pharmacist who receives a written, oral, or faxed prescription is not required to verify with the health care prescriber that the prescription properly falls under one (1) of the exceptions from the requirement to electronically prescribe in subsection (d). Pharmacists may continue to dispense medications from otherwise valid written, oral, or fax prescriptions that are consistent with § 53-11-308.
(f) The commissioner of health shall refer individual health care prescribers who violate this section to the health care prescriber's licensing board, and for such violation in this section, the health care prescriber is subject to penalties under § 63-1-134.
(g) Any health-related board under § 68-1-101(a)(8) that is affected by this section, shall report to the general assembly by January 1, 2019, on issues related to the implementation of this section.
(1) “Licensing” means the procedure through which the privilege to engage in a specific profession regulated under this title is granted by a licensing authority;
(2) “Licensing authority” means any state agency with the authority to impose training, education, or licensure fees to practice in a profession;
(3) “Licensure fee” means a fee imposed by a licensing authority on persons licensed to practice a profession for the privilege of providing goods or services;
(4) “Low-income persons” means persons who are enrolled in a state or federal public assistance program, including, but not limited to, temporary assistance for needy families (TANF), medicaid, or supplemental nutrition assistance program (SNAP); and
(5) “State agency” means a state board, agency, or commission attached to the division of health related boards, as listed in § 68-1-101(a)(8).
(b)
(1) Any licensing authority that requires a license for persons to practice in a profession shall waive all initial licensure fees for low-income persons.
(2) Persons seeking a waiver of initial licensure fee requirements shall apply to the appropriate licensing authority in a format prescribed by the authority.
(3) All licensing authorities to which this section applies shall promulgate rules to effectuate the purposes of this section. The rules shall be promulgated in accordance with the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5.
(1) “Board” means the board of medical examiners created pursuant to chapter 6 of this title;
(2) “Continuing education” means the healthcare professional's licensing board required continued postgraduate education intended to provide healthcare professionals with knowledge of new developments or reinforcement of previously learned information in the healthcare professional's field;
(3) “Department” means the department of health; and
(4) “Healthcare professional” means a person licensed to practice a healing art in this state pursuant to this title.
(b) The department shall collaborate with a Tennessee organization approved by the board that is accredited as a sponsor of continuing medical education to create a continuing education program for the purpose of providing healthcare professionals with information or training relative to public safety that includes, but is not limited to:
(1) Identifying and reporting individuals who may need emergent or non-emergent treatment related to their mental health;
(2) The emergency and non-emergency involuntary admission process, including the duty or authority established under title 33 to involuntarily detain, evaluate, or admit an individual to an inpatient treatment facility;
(3) Safety in healthcare settings, including how to protect staff and patients from threats, including threats of mass violence and an active shooter; and
(4) Maintaining HIPAA compliance while completing any necessary communication, writing, or reporting during the emergency and non-emergency involuntary admission process.
(c) The program must be approved by the board prior to implementation.
(d) The program must be accessible to all healthcare professionals online.
(e) The program must be a minimum of two (2) hours of continuing education credit, and the healthcare professional licensing boards under this title shall count the program toward the boards' continuing education requirements.
(f) The department shall make the program available on the board's website within six (6) months of board approval as required by subsection (c).
(g) The department, upon approval by the board, may periodically update any curriculum developed pursuant to this section to account for new research and information.
(1) “Original prescription” means a prescription for a controlled substance from an authorized prescriber that is presented by the patient to the pharmacist or submitted electronically to the pharmacy; and
(2) “Partial fill” means a prescription filled in a lesser quantity than the amount specified on the prescription for the patient.
(b)
(1) A prescription for a controlled substance may be partially filled if:
(A) The partial fill is requested by the patient or the practitioner who wrote the prescription; and
(B) The total quantity dispensed through partial fills pursuant to subdivision (b)(1)(A) does not exceed the total quantity prescribed for the original prescription.
(2) If a partial fill is made, the pharmacist shall retain the original prescription at the pharmacy where the prescription was first presented and the partial fill dispensed.
(3) Any subsequent fill must occur at the pharmacy that initially dispensed the partial fill. Any subsequent fill must be filled within six (6) months from issuance of the original prescription, unless federal law requires it to be filled within a shorter timeframe.
(c)
(1) If a partial fill is dispensed, the pharmacist shall only record in the controlled substance database the partial fill amount actually dispensed.
(2) If a partial fill is dispensed, the pharmacist shall notify the prescribing practitioner of the partial fill and of the amount actually dispensed:
(A) Through a notation in the interoperable electronic health record of the patient;
(B) Through submission of information to the controlled substance database;
(C) By electronic or facsimile transmission; or
(D) Through a notation in the patient's record that is maintained by the pharmacy, and that is accessible to the practitioner upon request.
(3) Nothing in this section shall be construed to conflict with or supersede any other requirement established in this part or title 53, chapter 10 or 11, for a prescription of a controlled substance.
(d)
(1) A pharmacist or pharmacy is authorized to charge a dispensing fee to cover the actual supply and labor costs associated with the dispensing of the original prescription of an opioid and each partial fill associated with the original prescription.
(2) Any cost sharing, copayment, dispensing fee, or any portion thereof, made to a pharmacist or pharmacy for the dispensing of a partial fill of an opioid shall not be considered an overpayment.
(3) A health insurance issuer or pharmacy benefits manager shall not utilize partial fills of an opioid to reduce payments to a pharmacist or pharmacy for dispensing multiple partial fills.
(e)
(1) A pharmacist or pharmacy is authorized to charge a dispensing fee to cover the actual supply and labor costs associated with the dispensing of the original prescription of a controlled substance other than an opioid and each partial fill associated with the original prescription.
(2) Any cost sharing, copayment, dispensing fee, or any portion thereof, made to a pharmacist or pharmacy for the dispensing of a partial fill of a controlled substance other than an opioid shall not be considered an overpayment.
(3) A health insurance issuer or pharmacy benefits manager shall not utilize partial fills of a controlled substance other than an opioid to reduce payments to a pharmacist or pharmacy for dispensing multiple partial fills.
(f) By January 1, 2021, all pharmacy dispensing software vendors operating in this state shall update their dispensing software systems to allow for partial filling of controlled substances pursuant to this section.
(1) “Alternative treatments” includes, but is not limited to, treatments such as chiropractic care, physical therapy, nonopioid medicinal drugs or drug products, occupational therapy, acupuncture, interventional procedures or treatments, and other such treatments that relieve pain without the use of opioids;
(2) “Encounter” means a single visit where an opioid is administered or an opioid prescription is issued or dispensed;
(3) “Healthcare practitioner” means a person licensed under this title who has the authority to prescribe or dispense controlled substances in the course of professional practice;
(4) “ICD-10 code” means the code established in the International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-10-CM) adopted by the federal centers for medicare and medicaid services, or the code used in any successor classification system adopted by the federal centers for medicare and medicaid services, that corresponds to the diagnosis of the condition being treated;
(5)
(A) “Informed consent” means consent voluntarily given in writing by the patient or the patient's legal representative after sufficient explanation and disclosure by the healthcare practitioner of the subject matter involved to enable the person whose consent is sought to make a knowing and willful decision. This explanation and disclosure by the healthcare practitioner to the patient or the patient's legal representative before consent may be obtained must include, at a minimum:
(i) Adequate information to allow the patient or the patient's legal representative to understand:
(a) The risks, effects, and characteristics of opioids, including the risks of physical dependency and addiction, misuse, and diversion;
(b) What to expect when taking an opioid and how opioids should be used; and
(c) Reasonable alternatives to opioids for treating or managing the patient's condition or symptoms and the benefits and risks of the alternative treatments;
(ii) A reasonable opportunity for questions by the patient or patient's legal representative;
(iii) Discussion and consideration by the patient or the patient's legal representative and the healthcare practitioner of whether the patient should take an opioid medication; and
(iv) If the patient is a woman of childbearing age and ability, information regarding neonatal abstinence syndrome and specific information regarding how to access contraceptive services in the community. For purposes of this section, childbearing age is between the ages of fifteen (15) and forty-four (44);
(B) Nothing in subdivision (a)(5)(A) limits other requirements imposed on healthcare practitioners by law or applicable licensing authority;
(6) “Morphine milligram equivalent dose” means the morphine milligram equivalent calculation for the amount of a prescribed opioid, multiplied by the days of treatment;
(7) “Palliative care” means specialized treatment for patients facing serious illness, which focuses on providing relief of suffering through a multidisciplinary approach in order to maximize quality of life for the patient. As used in this subdivision (a)(7), “serious illness” means a health condition that carries a high risk of mortality and negatively impacts a patient's daily bodily functions;
(8) “Recent cancer treatment” means six (6) months following the end of an active cancer treatment; and
(9) “Treat” means prescribe, dispense, or administer.
(b) Except as provided in this section, a healthcare practitioner shall not treat a patient with more than a three-day supply of an opioid and shall not treat a patient with an opioid dosage that exceeds a total of one hundred eighty (180) morphine milligram equivalent dose. A healthcare practitioner shall not be required to include an ICD-10 code on any prescription for an opioid of a three-day supply or less and an opioid dosage of less than one hundred eighty (180) morphine milligram equivalent.
(c)
(1) A patient shall not be treated with an opioid more frequently than every ten (10) days; provided, however, that if the patient has an adverse reaction to an opioid, a healthcare practitioner may treat a patient with a different opioid within a ten-day period under the following circumstances:
(A) The healthcare practitioner is employed by the same practice that initially treated the patient with the opioid that caused the adverse reaction;
(B) The healthcare practitioner personally evaluates the patient, assesses the patient's adverse reaction, and determines a different course of treatment is more medically appropriate;
(C) The healthcare practitioner confirms with the dispenser that the remainder of the initial prescription has been cancelled by the dispenser;
(D) The healthcare practitioner counsels the patient to appropriately destroy any remaining opioids that were previously dispensed to the patient; and
(E) The healthcare practitioner's treatment of the patient conforms to the requirements of this section.
(2) Notwithstanding subdivision (c)(1), where the treatment provided by a healthcare practitioner is prescribing an opioid, the healthcare practitioner may authorize the prescription to be dispensed by partial fill by placing “partial fill” or “PF” on the prescription.
(d)
(1)
(A) A healthcare practitioner may treat a patient with more than a three-day supply of an opioid if the healthcare practitioner treats the patient with no more than one (1) prescription for an opioid per encounter and:
(i) Personally conducts a thorough evaluation of the patient;
(ii) Documents consideration of non-opioid and non-pharmacologic pain management strategies and why the strategies failed or were not attempted;
(iii) Includes the ICD-10 code for the primary disease in the patient's chart, and on the prescription when a prescription is issued; and
(iv) Obtains informed consent, except as provided in subdivision (d)(1)(C), and documents the reason for treating with an opioid in the chart.
(B) A healthcare practitioner who is dispensing pursuant to a prescription written by another healthcare practitioner for more than a three-day supply of an opioid is not required to satisfy subdivisions (d)(1)(A)(i)-(iv) when filling a prescription that contains an ICD-10 code; provided, that the healthcare practitioner shall not dispense more than one (1) prescription for an opioid to a patient per encounter.
(C) After issuing an initial prescription to a patient for an opioid in a manner that complies with subdivision (d)(1)(A), the healthcare practitioner who issued the initial prescription is not required to obtain and document informed consent as required under subdivision (d)(1)(A)(iv) if the subsequent prescription is for the same opioid and for the same episode of treatment. Notwithstanding this subdivision (d)(1)(C), informed consent must be updated periodically during any course of treatment.
(2) If a healthcare practitioner treats a patient with more than a three-day supply of an opioid, the healthcare practitioner may treat the patient with no more than a ten-day supply and with a dosage that does not exceed a total of a five hundred (500) morphine milligram equivalent dose.
(3) Notwithstanding subdivision (d)(2), in rare cases where the patient has a condition that will be treated by a procedure that is more than minimally invasive and sound medical judgment would determine the risk of adverse effects from the pain exceeds the risk of the development of a substance use disorder or overdose event, a healthcare practitioner may treat a patient with up to a thirty-day supply of an opioid and with a dosage that does not exceed a total of a twelve hundred (1200) morphine milligram equivalent dose.
(4) Notwithstanding subdivision (d)(2), in rare cases after trial and failure of reasonable, appropriate, and available non-opioid treatments for the pain condition or documenting the contraindication, inefficacy, or intolerance of non-opioid treatments, where medical necessity and sound medical judgment would determine the risk of adverse effects from the pain exceeds the risk of the development of a substance use disorder or overdose event, a healthcare practitioner may treat a patient with up to a thirty-day supply of an opioid and with a dosage that does not exceed a total of a one thousand two hundred (1,200) morphine milligram equivalent dose. The healthcare practitioner must include the phrase “medical necessity” on the prescription for any prescription issued pursuant to this subdivision (d)(4).
(e) The restrictions of this section do not apply to the following; provided, that where a prescription is issued pursuant to this subsection (e), the prescription contains the ICD-10 code for the primary disease documented in the patient's chart and the word “exempt”:
(1) The treatment of patients who are undergoing active cancer treatment, have undergone recent cancer treatment, are undergoing palliative care treatment, or are receiving hospice care;
(2) The treatment of patients with a diagnosis of sickle cell disease;
(3) The administration of opioids directly to a patient during the patient's treatment at any facility licensed under title 68, chapter 11, or any hospital licensed under title 33, chapter 2, part 4;
(4) Prescriptions issued by healthcare practitioners who are:
(A) Pain management specialists, as that term is defined in § 63-1-301, or who are collaborating with a pain management specialist in accordance with § 63-1-306(a)(3); provided, that the patient receiving the prescription is personally assessed by the pain management specialist, or by the advanced practice registered nurse or physician assistant collaborating with the pain management specialist; or
(B) Treating patients in an outpatient setting of a hospital exempt under § 63-1-302(2) that holds itself out to the public as a pain management clinic.
(5) The treatment of patients who have been treated with an opioid daily for ninety (90) days or more during the three hundred sixty-five (365) days prior to April 15, 2018, or those who are subsequently treated for ninety (90) days or more under one (1) of the exceptions listed in subdivision (d)(4) or this subsection (e);
(6) The direct administration of, or dispensing of, methadone for the treatment of an opioid use disorder to a patient who is receiving treatment from a healthcare practitioner practicing under 21 U.S.C. § 823(g)(1);
(7) The treatment of a patient for opioid use disorder with products that are approved by the U.S. food and drug administration for opioid use disorder by a healthcare practitioner;
(8) The treatment of a patient with a product that is an opioid antagonist and does not contain an opioid agonist; or
(9) The treatment of a patient who has suffered a severe burn or major physical trauma and for whom sound medical judgment would determine the risk of adverse effects from the pain exceeds the risk of the development of a substance use disorder or overdose event. As used in this subdivision (e)(9), “severe burn” means an injury sustained from thermal or chemical causes resulting in second degree or third degree burns. As used in this subdivision (e)(9), “major physical trauma” means a serious injury sustained due to blunt or penetrating force which results in serious blood loss, fracture, significant temporary or permanent impairment, or disability.
(f) The commissioner of health, in consultation with the regulatory boards created pursuant to this title that license healthcare practitioners, shall provide a letter no later than November 1 of each even-numbered year to the governor, the speaker of the senate, the speaker of the house of representatives, the health and welfare committee of the senate, and the health committee of the house of representatives that includes updated information on the impact and effects of the restrictions set forth in this section. The letter may include recommendations for revisions to the restrictions on the prescription of opioids.
(g) This section applies only to the treatment of human patients.
(h) This section does not apply to opioids approved by the food and drug administration to treat upper respiratory symptoms or cough. However, a healthcare practitioner shall not treat a patient with more than a fourteen-day supply of such an opioid.
(a) The general assembly finds and declares the following:
(1) The National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986 (42 U.S.C. § 300aa-26) requires, prior to the administration of a vaccine listed in the vaccine injury table to a minor, that healthcare providers provide the vaccine information statement from the centers for disease control and prevention to the legal representatives of the minor;
(2) The Tennessee supreme court's decision in <em>Cardwell v. Bechtol</em>, 724 S.W.2d 739 (1987), found that the mature minor exception, guided by the “Rule of Sevens,” is part of Tennessee common law, but only in the context of tort law and jury considerations, and not the general rule requiring parental consent for the medical treatment of minors;
(3) The <em>Cardwell</em> court stated, “Adoption of the mature minor exception to the common law rule is by no means a general license to treat minors without parental consent and its application is dependent on the facts of each case. It must be seen in the context of the tort in question.”;
(4) Despite its holding in the case, the <em>Cardwell</em> court declined to alter the general rule, which is “requiring parental consent for the medical treatment of minors”;
(5) In its opinion in the case of <em>Parham v. J.R.</em>, 442 U.S. 584 (1979), the United States supreme court wrote, “Simply because the decision of a parent is not agreeable to a child, or because it involves risks, does not automatically transfer the power to make that decision from the parents to some agency or officer of the state. The same characterizations can be made for a tonsillectomy, appendectomy, or other medical procedure. Most children, even in adolescence, simply are not able to make sound judgments concerning many decisions, including their need for medical care or treatment. Parents can and must make those judgments.”; and
(6) In the case of <em>Troxel v. Granville</em>, 530 U.S. 57 (2000), Justice O'Connor wrote for the United States supreme court, “The Fourteenth Amendment's Due Process Clause has a substantive component that ‘provides heightened protection against government interference with certain fundamental rights and liberty interests,' <em>Washington v. Glucksberg</em>, 521 U.S. 702, 720, including parents' fundamental right to make decisions concerning the care, custody, and control of their children”.
(b) As used in this section:
(1) “Department” means the department of health;
(2) “Healthcare provider” means a healthcare professional, healthcare establishment, or healthcare facility licensed, registered, certified, or permitted pursuant to this title or title 68 or regulated under the authority of either the department of health or an agency, board, council, or committee attached to the department of health, and that is authorized to administer vaccinations in this state;
(3) “Minor”:
(A) Means an individual who has not attained eighteen (18) years of age; and
(B) Does not include an individual who:
(i) Is emancipated pursuant to title 29, chapter 31;
(ii) Is in need of emergency treatment pursuant to § 63-6-222;
(iii) Is or was previously a member of the armed forces of the United States, or a member of a reserve or national guard unit; or
(iv) Is the parent of a minor child and has full custody of that minor child;
(4) “Vaccination” means the act of introducing a vaccine into the body; and
(5) “Vaccine” means a substance intended for use in humans to stimulate the body's immune response against an infectious disease or pathogen.
(c)
(1) A healthcare provider shall not provide a vaccination to a minor unless the healthcare provider first receives informed consent from a parent or legal guardian of the minor. The healthcare provider shall document receipt of, and include in the minor's medical record proof of, such prior parental or guardian informed consent.
(2) An employee or agent of this state shall not provide, request, or facilitate the vaccination of a minor child who is in the custody of this state, except:
(A) Upon written request to, and court order from, the appropriate court;
(B) If a parent or legal guardian of the minor has provided prior written informed consent to the vaccination; or
(C) If the parental rights of each of the minor's parents or legal guardians have been terminated by a court, and all opportunities for appeal have been exhausted.
(3) A violation of this section is an unlawful practice and is grounds for the offending healthcare provider's licensing authority to suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew the healthcare provider's license or take other disciplinary action allowed by law.
(4) If the licensing authority of a healthcare provider receives information of a violation or potential violation of this section by the healthcare provider, then the licensing authority shall conduct an immediate investigation and take appropriate disciplinary action.
(d) To the extent this section conflicts with another law, this section controls.
(a) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, a healthcare professional may accept goods or services as payment in a direct exchange of barter for healthcare services provided by the healthcare professional if the patient to whom the healthcare services are provided is not covered by health insurance coverage, as defined by § 56-7-109. A healthcare professional who accepts barter as payment in accordance with this section shall annually submit a copy of the relevant federal tax form disclosing the healthcare professional's income from barter to the healthcare professional's licensing board. This section does not apply to any healthcare services provided at a pain management clinic as defined in § 63-1-301.
(b) For purposes of this section, “healthcare professional” means a physician or other healthcare practitioner licensed, registered, accredited, or certified to perform specified healthcare services pursuant to this title or title 68 and regulated under the authority of the department of health or any agency, board, council, or committee attached to the department.
(a) Notwithstanding any requirement for the licensure of a medical professional by a health related board listed in § 68-1-101, a medical professional who has a current license to practice from another state, commonwealth, territory, or the District of Columbia is exempt from the licensure requirements of such boards, if:
(1) The medical professional is an active or reserve member of the armed forces of the United States, a member of the national guard, a civilian employee of the United States department of defense, an authorized personal services contractor under 10 U.S.C. § 1091, or a healthcare professional otherwise authorized by the department of defense; and
(2) The medical professional is engaged in the practice of a medical profession listed in § 68-1-101 through a program in partnership with the federal Innovative Readiness Training.
(b) The exemption provided by this section only applies while:
(1) The medical professional's practice is required by the program pursuant to military orders; and
(2) The services provided by the medical professional are within the scope of practice for the individual's respective profession in this state.
(c) This section does not permit a medical professional exempt by this section to engage in the practice of a medical profession listed in § 68-1-101, except as part of federal Innovative Readiness Training as described in this section.
(d) The respective health related board may promulgate rules to effectuate this section. The rules must be promulgated in accordance with the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5.
(1) “Facility” has the same meaning as defined in § 68-11-201;
(2) “Healthcare provider” means a person who is licensed, certified, or authorized or permitted by the laws of this state to administer health care in the ordinary course of business or practice of a profession; and
(3) “Qualified mental health professional” has the same meaning as defined in § 33-1-101.
(b) If a patient who is an inpatient in a licensed healthcare facility, or seeking services from an emergency department, expresses to a healthcare provider a recent threat or attempt at suicide or infliction of bodily harm to themselves, then the healthcare provider shall enter the attempt or threat into the patient's medical record. Upon discharge from the facility, the facility shall provide the patient with contact information to access a qualified mental health professional or counseling resource unless the patient is discharged to another facility. This referral requirement may be satisfied by providing contact information for this state's mobile crisis services or the statewide crisis hotline.
(c) A healthcare provider who violates this section is subject to discipline by the healthcare provider's licensing authority.
(a) Notwithstanding another law, a licensing board established pursuant to this title or title 68 shall enter into an executive session for any discussion or deliberation of licensee or prospective licensee health conditions, including mental health conditions and substance use disorders, revealed during an application process. The discussion and deliberation of the executive session is not a public meeting as described in § 8-44-102. Minutes and recordings of such executive session, portions of an application involving an applicant's health condition, and records involving an applicant's health condition are confidential, privileged, and not public records subject to inspection by citizens of this state, as described in §§ 8-44-104(a) and 10-7-503. An applicant or licensee may access records of the applicant's or licensee's own application and related proceedings, as may the applicant's or licensee's authorized representative or attorney, or an attorney for this state. The licensing board shall not vote during an executive session described in this subsection (a).
(b) An executive session is required for licensure application proceedings involving conditions that impair a physician's ability to practice medicine in a competent, ethical, and professional manner. An attorney for the state may be present for the entirety of the proceeding and may advocate on behalf of the department as is reasonably necessary during such proceeding, including the executive session.
(c) At the discretion of an applicant for a license, an authorized representative or attorney for the applicant for a license before a board established pursuant to this title or title 68, may be present for the entirety of any proceeding, including an executive session, and may advocate on behalf of the applicant as is reasonably necessary during such proceeding or executive session.
(a) Notwithstanding any law, if the licensing authority of a healthcare prescriber learns that the healthcare prescriber is the subject of an indictment for a federal or state criminal offense that involves a controlled substance violation or sexual offense, then the chair of the licensing authority or administrative staff of the licensing authority designated by the chair shall automatically and immediately restrict the license of the healthcare prescriber by removing the prescriber's authorization to prescribe Schedule II controlled substances in this state until the case against the healthcare prescriber reaches final disposition. The chair of the licensing authority or administrative staff of the licensing authority designated by the chair shall immediately send written notice of the license restriction to the healthcare prescriber. Upon receipt of sufficient proof, the chair of the licensing authority or administrative staff of the licensing authority designated by the chair shall remove the license restriction if:
(1) The healthcare prescriber is acquitted by a verdict of the jury upon the merits; or
(2) The prosecution is dismissed, or a nolle prosequi is entered by the prosecuting authority.
(b) Notwithstanding any law, if the licensing authority of a healthcare prescriber learns that the healthcare prescriber is convicted of a federal or state criminal offense that involves a controlled substance violation or sexual offense, then the chair of the licensing authority or administrative staff of the licensing authority designated by the chair shall automatically and immediately, without further action by the licensing authority, revoke the license of the healthcare prescriber. The chair of the licensing authority or administrative staff of the licensing authority designated by the chair shall immediately send written notice of the license revocation to the healthcare prescriber. If the conviction on which the revocation is based is subsequently overturned or reversed, then the chair of the licensing authority or administrative staff of the licensing authority designated by the chair shall:
(1) Grant the prescriber a new license if the prescriber otherwise satisfies the qualifications for licensure under this title and the criminal charges against the prescriber involving a controlled substance violation or sexual offense have reached final disposition; or
(2) Grant the prescriber a new license subject to the restriction described in subsection (a) if the prescriber otherwise satisfies the qualifications for licensure under this title, but the criminal charges against the prescriber involving a controlled substance violation or sexual offense have not reached final disposition.
(c)
(1) Failure by a person licensed under and required by chapter 7 or 19 of this title to collaborate with a physician for any act within the person's licensed scope of practice constitutes a threat to the public health, safety, and welfare and imperatively requires emergency action by the person's licensing authority.
(2) Notwithstanding any law, if the licensing authority of a person licensed under and required by chapter 7 or 19 of this title to collaborate with a physician for any act within the person's licensed scope of practice learns that the person has failed to comply with the collaboration requirement, then the chair of the licensing authority, or the chair's designee, shall direct the administrative staff to automatically and immediately, without further action of the licensing authority, suspend the license of the person until the licensing authority receives sufficient proof that the person is in compliance with the collaboration requirements of this title.
(1) “Communication” means written or electronic correspondence among a healthcare facility, health insurance entity, or provider concerning a prior authorization;
(2) “Health insurance coverage” has the same meaning as defined in § 56-7-109;
(3) “Health insurance entity” means an entity subject to the insurance laws of this state, or subject to the jurisdiction of the commissioner of commerce and insurance, that contracts or offers to contract to provide health insurance coverage, including, but not limited to, an insurance company, a health maintenance organization, and a nonprofit hospital and medical service corporation;
(4) “Healthcare facility”:
(A) Means an institution, place, or building providing healthcare services that is required to be licensed under title 68, chapter 11; and
(B) Excludes emergency room and in-patient services provided at a hospital, as defined in § 68-11-201;
(5) “Healthcare service” means a service for the diagnosis, prevention, treatment, cure, or relief of a health condition, illness, injury, or disease;
(6) “Minor” means an individual who has not attained eighteen (18) years of age;
(7) “Policyholder” means an individual who has contracted with a health insurance entity for healthcare services coverage; and
(8) “Provider” means an individual or entity performing services regulated pursuant to this title or title 68, chapter 11, with whom the health insurance entity has an express and valid network provider agreement or contract.
(b) Except as provided in subsection (d), a provider shall notify a patient of communication between the provider and a health insurance entity or healthcare facility concerning additional information needed to process a prior authorization request for the patient within five (5) business days after the communication has occurred. The notification must include a brief summary of the communication or a copy of the communication.
(c) The provider shall notify the patient via electronic means, such as by email or through an online patient portal offered by the provider, unless the patient requests, in writing, an alternative notification method.
(d) If the patient is a minor, then the provider must notify the policyholder whose health insurance coverage covers the minor.
(e) This section does not apply to the TennCare program or a successor to the program provided for in the Medical Assistance Act of 1968, compiled in title 71, chapter 5, or to the CoverKids Act of 2006, compiled in title 71, chapter 3, part 11 or a successor program.
(a) For the purposes of providing services in a school setting pursuant to a child's individualized education program (IEP), the following healthcare providers licensed pursuant to this title may refer or order services within their scope of practice as part of a child's IEP:
(1) A physical therapist licensed under chapter 13 of this title may order or make a referral for physical therapy services for a child, and qualifies as a licensed practitioner of the healing arts for the purpose of 42 C.F.R. 440.110(a)(1);
(2) An occupational therapist licensed under chapter 13 of this title may order or make a referral for occupational therapy services for a child, and qualifies as a licensed practitioner of the healing arts for the purpose of 42 C.F.R. 440.110(b)(1);
(3) A speech-language pathologist licensed under chapter 17 of this title may order or make a referral for speech-language pathology services for a child, and qualifies as a licensed practitioner of the healing arts for the purpose of 42 C.F.R. 440.110(c)(1); and
(4) An audiologist licensed under chapter 17 of this title may order or make a referral for audiology services for a child, and qualifies as a licensed practitioner of the healing arts for the purpose of 42 C.F.R. 440.110(c)(1).
(b) An order or referral made in accordance with this section may be evidenced by the signature of the healthcare provider in the student's IEP; provided, that the child has been appropriately evaluated and assessed by the provider making the referral or order.
(A) Means a work-related, psychological disorder that manifests in emotional exhaustion, depersonalization, and a diminished sense of personal accomplishment; and
(B) Does not mean:
(i) Substance use disorder;
(ii) A mental health condition; or
(iii) Another condition that impairs a physician's judgment or adversely affects a physician's ability to practice medicine in a competent, ethical, and professional manner;
(2) “Health insurance entity” has the same meaning as defined in § 56-7-109;
(3) “Physician” means a person licensed pursuant to chapter 6 or 9 of this title; and
(4) “Physician wellness program”:
(A) Means the program that:
(i) Is organized or contracted for by a statewide advocacy organization that has its principal place of business in this state and that serves physicians licensed to practice medicine in this state; and
(ii) Provides counseling, coaching, or similar services to address issues pertaining to career fatigue; and
(B) Does not mean a program that provides counseling, coaching, or similar services to address issues related to substance abuse, a mental health condition, or another condition that impairs a physician's judgment or adversely affects the physician's ability to practice medicine in a competent, ethical, and professional manner.
(b) An individual or entity that provides, discloses, or receives information related to career fatigue as part of a physician wellness program is, with respect to the information provided, disclosed, or received, immune from:
(1) Civil liability or a civil cause of action; and
(2) An administrative sanction or other proceeding.
(c) This section does not:
(1) Authorize a physician to withhold information requested in accordance with contractual terms between a health insurance entity and a statewide advocacy organization or information requested in an application used by a health insurance entity for credentialing or contracting purposes, including a Council for Affordable Quality Healthcare application;
(2) Waive a physician's obligation to disclose information regarding:
(A) A substance use disorder;
(B) A mental health condition; or
(C) Another condition that impairs the physician's judgment or adversely affects the physician's ability to practice medicine in a competent, ethical, and professional manner; or
(3) Authorize a statewide advocacy organization to withhold information in accordance with contractual terms between the statewide advocacy organization and a health insurance entity.
(a) All state entities that are created under this title and administratively attached to the division of health related boards must issue advisory private letter rulings to any affected person who is certified, licensed, or registered by such state entities and who makes such a request regarding any matters within the state entities' primary jurisdiction. The private letter ruling only affects the person making the inquiry and shall have no precedential value for any other inquiry or future contested case to come before the state entity. Any dispute regarding a private letter ruling may be resolved pursuant to the declaratory order provisions of § 4-5-223 if the board chooses to do so.
(b) The commissioner of health shall promulgate rules to effectuate this section. The rules must be promulgated in accordance with the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5.
(1) “Coerce” means to compel a person to act by force, intimidation, or threat;
(2) “Healthcare provider” means a healthcare professional, healthcare establishment, or healthcare facility licensed, registered, certified, or permitted pursuant to this title or title 68 or regulated under the authority of either the department of health or an agency, board, council, or committee attached to the department of health, and that is authorized to administer vaccinations in this state;
(3) “Vaccination” means the act of introducing a vaccine into the body; and
(4) “Vaccine” means a substance intended for use in humans to stimulate the body's immune response against an infectious disease or pathogen.
(b) A healthcare provider shall not:
(1) Coerce a person, including a person who has legal authority to make healthcare decisions for a child, to consent to a vaccination;
(2) Mislead or misrepresent that a vaccination is required by state law, when state law provides an exemption; or
(3) Mislead or misrepresent that a newborn screening test is required by state law, when state law does not require such screening without providing an exemption to such requirement.
(c)
(1) A violation of this section is an unlawful practice and is grounds for the offending healthcare provider's licensing authority to suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew the healthcare provider's license or take other disciplinary action allowed by law.
(2) If the licensing authority of a healthcare provider receives information of a violation or potential violation of this section by the healthcare provider, then the licensing authority shall conduct an immediate investigation and take appropriate disciplinary action.
(1) “Government entity” means the state, any branch, department, agency, commission, or instrumentality of state government, any official or other person acting under color of state law, or any political subdivision of the state;
(2) “Healthcare provider” means a healthcare professional, healthcare establishment, or healthcare facility licensed, registered, certified, or permitted pursuant to this title, title 33, or title 68 or regulated under the authority of either the department of health or an agency, board, council, or committee attached to the department of health or by the department of mental health and substance abuse services, and that is authorized to provide health or medical care or mental health services in this state;
(3) “Medical decision-making authority” means the power granted by the state to a nonparent to make important decisions regarding a child's health care;
(4) “Minor”:
(A) Means an individual who has not attained eighteen (18) years of age; and
(B) Does not include an individual who:
(i) Is emancipated pursuant to title 29, chapter 31;
(ii) Needs emergency treatment pursuant to § 63-6-222;
(iii) Is or was previously a member of the armed forces of the United States or a member of a reserve or national guard unit; or
(iv) Is the parent of a minor child and has full custody of that minor child;
(5) “Parent” means a biological, legal, or adoptive parent or an individual who has been granted medical decision-making authority over the child under state law; and
(6) “Person” means an individual, corporation, or any other legal or commercial entity, whether or not a citizen or domiciliary of this state and whether or not organized under the laws of this state.
(b) Except as otherwise provided by statutory law, case law, or court order, a government entity, a healthcare provider, or any other person shall not knowingly take any of the following actions with regard to a minor without first obtaining the consent of a parent of the minor:
(1) Treat, profess to diagnose, operate on, or prescribe for any physical ailment, physical injury, or deformity;
(2) Prescribe, dispense, deliver, or administer any drug or medication;
(3) Render psychological services specified in §§ 63-11-202 and 63-11-203; or
(4) Render counseling services specified in § 63-22-122.
(c) This section does not apply when:
(1) A parent of the minor has given blanket consent authorizing the person or entity to perform an activity listed in subsection (b);
(2) A government entity, healthcare provider, or any other person reasonably relies in good faith on an individual's representations that the individual is the parent of a minor or has otherwise been granted authority to make decisions regarding a minor's health care under state law;
(3) A licensed physician performs emergency medical or surgical treatment pursuant to § 63-6-222;
(4) Licensed personnel render appropriate emergency medical care and provide emergency medical services pursuant to § 68-140-309;
(5) A person, including a law enforcement officer, participates or assists in rendering emergency care pursuant to § 63-6-218; or
(6) An employee of a local education agency acts to control bleeding using a bleeding control kit pursuant to § 49-2-137.
(d) A violation of this section is an unlawful practice and is grounds for the offending healthcare provider's licensing authority to suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew the healthcare provider's license or take other disciplinary action allowed by law.
(e) If the licensing authority of a healthcare provider receives information of a violation or potential violation of this section by the healthcare provider, then the licensing authority shall conduct an immediate investigation and take appropriate disciplinary action.
(f) A parent may bring a civil cause of action to recover compensatory damages, reasonable attorney's fees, court costs, expenses, and other appropriate relief against an entity or healthcare provider alleged to have violated this section.
(g) If a court in any civil action brought pursuant to this section finds that a healthcare provider knowingly violated this section, then the court shall notify the appropriate regulatory authority and the attorney general and reporter by mailing a certified copy of the court's order to the regulatory authority and the attorney general and reporter. Notification pursuant to this subsection (g) must be made upon the judgment of the court being made final.
(h)
(1) A civil action commenced against a healthcare provider under this section must be brought within the period required by § 29-26-116.
(2) A civil action commenced against another entity under this section must be brought within one (1) year from the date of discovery of the violation of this section.
(i) This section is declared to be remedial in nature, and this section must be liberally construed to effectuate its purposes.
As used in this part, unless the context otherwise requires:
(1) “Free health clinic” means a health care facility operated by a nonprofit private entity that does not receive payment for its services and does not impose any charges on the individuals to whom services are rendered;
(2) “Medical practitioner” means a:
(A) Physician licensed under chapter 6 or 9 of this title;
(B) Dentist or dental hygienist licensed under chapter 5 of this title;
(C) Nurse licensed under chapter 7 of this title;
(D) Chiropractor licensed under chapter 4 of this title;
(E) Psychologist licensed under chapter 11 of this title;
(F) Social worker licensed under chapter 23 of this title;
(G) Physician assistant licensed under chapter 19 of this title;
(H) Licensed Professional Counselors licensed under chapter 22 of this title;
(I) Marital and Family Therapists licensed under chapter 22 of this title; and
(J) Clinical Pastoral Therapists licensed under chapter 22 of this title; and
(3) “Special volunteer license” means a license awarded to a medical practitioner whose sole practice is rendering professional services without remuneration in a free health clinic at a specified site or setting. The practitioner must have been previously issued a license to practice in this state or another state and the practitioner must never have been the subject of disciplinary action. The licensing authority shall require an application and relevant documentation before issuing the special volunteer license. No fee may be charged for an application or issuance of the special license.
Medical practitioners who practice in a free health clinic and who do not receive monetary remuneration for medical care and other services rendered within the statutory scope of practice for such practitioner shall not be subject to:
(1) Any fees for a special volunteer license from the practitioner's licensing board; or
(2) The privilege tax on occupations imposed by title 67, chapter 4, part 17.
A medical practitioner or a free health clinic may not receive any compensation for services rendered including, but not limited to, reimbursement from an individual or from any third party payor. Reimbursement may not be accepted from any insurance policy, health plan or federal or state benefits program. A clinic may receive donations and gifts.
For purposes of this part, unless the context requires otherwise:
(1) “Advanced practice registered nurse” means any person licensed under chapter 7 of this title, who meets the requirements of § 63-7-126;
(2) “Chronic nonmalignant pain treatment” means prescribing or dispensing opioids, benzodiazepines, barbiturates or carisoprodol for ninety (90) days or more in a twelve-month period for pain unrelated to cancer or palliative care;
(3) “Department” means the department of health;
(4) “Medical director” means an individual who:
(A) Is licensed as a physician under chapter 6 or 9 of this title, and who practices in this state with an unrestricted, unencumbered license;
(B) Provides oversight relative to the operations of a pain management clinic; and
(C) Is a pain management specialist on or after July 1, 2016;
(5) “Medical doctor” means any person licensed under chapter 6 of this title;
(6) “Osteopathic physician” means any person licensed under chapter 9 of this title;
(7)
(A) “Pain management clinic” or “clinic” means a privately-owned clinic, facility or office in which any health care provider licensed under this title provides chronic nonmalignant pain treatment to a majority of its patients for ninety (90) days or more in a twelve-month period. For purposes of determining if a clinic, facility, or office qualifies as a pain management clinic under this subdivision (7)(A), the entire clinic, facility, or office caseload of patients who received medical care services from all medical doctors, osteopathic physicians, advanced practice registered nurses and physician assistants who serve in the clinic, facility or office shall be counted;
(B) “Pain management clinic” also means a privately-owned clinic, facility or office which advertises in any medium for pain management services of any type.
(C) A pain management clinic does not include any clinic, facility, or office which provides interventional pain management as defined in § 63-6-244 and whose clinic, facility or office does not provide chronic nonmalignant pain treatment to a majority of the patients of a clinic, facility or office for ninety (90) days or more in a twelve-month period;
(D) “Pain management clinic” does not mean a clinic, facility, or office that is wholly owned and operated by a physician multispecialty practice in which one (1) or more board-eligible or board-certified medical specialists who have also completed fellowships in pain medicine or pain management approved by the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education, or who are also board-certified in pain medicine or pain management by the American Board of Pain Medicine or a board approved by the American Board of Medical Specialties, the American Association of Physician Specialists, or the American Osteopathic Association to perform the pain management services for chronic pain patients;
(8) “Pain management specialist” means a physician licensed under chapter 6 or 9 of this title who:
(A)
(i) Has a subspecialty certification in pain medicine or pain management as accredited by the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education (ACGME) through either the American Board of Medical Specialties (ABMS) or the American Osteopathic Association (AOA), or is eligible to sit for the board examination offered by ABMS or AOA;
(ii) Holds an unencumbered Tennessee license; and
(iii) Maintains the minimum number of continuing medical education (CME) hours in pain medicine or pain management to satisfy retention of ABMS or AOA certification. Any exceptions to this requirement shall be approved by the respective regulatory board;
(B)
(i) Attains American Board of Pain Medicine (ABPM) diplomate status;
(ii) Holds an unencumbered Tennessee license; and
(iii) Maintains the minimum number of CME hours in pain management to satisfy retention of ABPM diplomate status. Any exceptions to this requirement shall be approved by the respective regulatory board;
(C) Is board certified by the American Board of Interventional Pain Physicians (ABIPP) by passing exam 1 on or before June 30, 2016, and holds an unencumbered Tennessee license and maintains the minimum number of CME hours in pain management to satisfy retention of ABIPP diplomate status; provided, that on and after July 1, 2016, a new applicant shall only qualify as a pain management specialist under this subdivision (8)(C) if the applicant is board certified by ABIPP by passing parts 1 and 2 of its examination, and holds an unencumbered Tennessee license and maintains the minimum number of CME hours in pain management to satisfy retention of ABIPP diplomate status; or
(D) Has an active pain management practice in a clinic accredited in outpatient interdisciplinary pain rehabilitation by the commission on accreditation of rehabilitation facilities or any successor organization and holds an unencumbered Tennessee license; and
(9) “Physician assistant” means any person licensed under chapter 19 of this title.
(1) A medical or dental school, an osteopathic medical school, a nursing school, a physician assistant program or an outpatient clinic associated with any of the foregoing schools or programs, including, but not limited to, clinics that have an agreement to train residents by members of that clinic who are appointed as adjunct faculty of the school or program;
(2) A hospital as defined in § 68-11-201, including any outpatient facility or clinic of a hospital if such outpatient facility or clinic is regulated under title 68;
(3) Hospice services as defined in § 68-11-201;
(4) A nursing home as defined in § 68-11-201;
(5) A facility maintained or operated by this state; or
(6) A hospital or clinic maintained or operated by the federal government.
(1) Each licensed healthcare practitioner who provides services at a pain management clinic shall continue to be regulated only by the board which has issued a license to that practitioner.
(2) A licensed health care practitioner shall notify the board that has licensed the practitioner within ten (10) days of starting or ending work at any pain management clinic.
(b) On or before October 1, 2011, the commissioner of health, in consultation with the board of medical examiners, the board of osteopathic examination, the board of nursing, and the committee on physician assistants, shall promulgate rules necessary to implement this part, in accordance with the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5.
(c) The rules adopted pursuant to subsection (b) shall address the following topics, among others:
(1) The operation of the clinic, including requirements:
(A) That patients have current and valid government issued identification or current health insurance card issued by either a government or private carrier; and
(B) That providers conduct urine drug screening in accordance with a written drug screening compliance plan as required by rules promulgated by the commissioner of health pursuant to subsection (b);
(2) Personnel requirements for the clinic;
(3) Training requirements for clinic providers who are regulated by that board;
(4) Patient records;
(5) Standards to ensure quality of patient care;
(6) Infection control;
(7) Health and safety requirements;
(8) License application and renewal procedures and requirements;
(9) Data collection and reporting requirements;
(10) Inspections and complaint investigations; and
Each board shall have the authority to inspect a pain management clinic which utilizes the services of a practitioner licensed by that board. During such inspections, the authorized representatives of the board may inspect all necessary documents and medical records to ensure compliance with this part and all other applicable laws and rules.
Each board shall have the authority to investigate a complaint alleging a violation of this part, or a rule adopted under this part, by a pain management clinic utilizing the services of a healthcare practitioner licensed by that board. Each board shall also have the authority to investigate a complaint alleging that a pain management clinic utilizing the services of a healthcare practitioner licensed by that board is not properly licensed by the department as required by this part.
(1) Each pain management clinic must have a medical director who is a medical doctor or osteopathic physician who practices in this state under an unrestricted and unencumbered license issued pursuant to § 63-6-201 or § 63-9-104.
(2) In addition to the requirements of subdivision (a)(1), each physician serving as a medical director at a pain management clinic shall be a pain management specialist.
(3)
(A) All advanced practice registered nurses licensed under chapter 7 of this title, who practice in a licensed pain clinic, shall collaborate with a pain medicine specialist.
(B) All physician assistants licensed under chapter 19 of this title who practice in a licensed pain clinic shall collaborate with a pain medicine specialist.
(b) In the event that the medical director, for whatever reason, no longer meets the requirements of this part, the pain management clinic must notify the department, in writing within ten (10) business days, of the identity of another physician who meets the requirements of this part and will act as medical director and provide all necessary documentation required by the department to establish that the replacement is qualified as required by this part. Any clinic that fails to provide such timely written notice must cease operations until the notice is provided and the department has confirmed in writing that the replacement medical director is duly qualified. Continuation of operations without the timely written notice required by this subsection (b) constitutes grounds for disciplinary action against the clinic under this part.
(c) Any board that assesses any discipline or penalty against a provider that it licenses for a violation of rules promulgated under this part shall inform the department of any penalty or discipline imposed on such a provider for a violation of rules promulgated under this part within thirty (30) days of imposing the discipline or penalty, and the department may consider such discipline or penalty as a basis for disciplinary action against the pain management clinic pursuant to this subsection (c).
(d) The pain management clinic shall post the license in a conspicuous location so as to be clearly visible to patients.
(e) The department shall have the authority to adopt rules, including emergency rules if deemed necessary, to implement this part for which the department has responsibility.
(a) A pain management clinic may not be owned wholly or partly by a person who has been convicted of, pled nolo contendere to, or received deferred adjudication for:
(1) An offense that constitutes a felony; or
(2) An offense that constitutes a misdemeanor, the facts of which relate to the distribution of illegal prescription drugs or a controlled substance or controlled substance analogue as defined in § 39-17-402.
(b) If any practitioner providing services at a pain management clinic prescribes controlled substances for the treatment of chronic nonmalignant pain, the practitioner must document in the patient's record the reason for prescribing that quantity.
(c) A medical director shall be onsite at least twenty percent (20%) of the clinic’s weekly total number of operating hours. A medical director shall serve as medical director and provide services for no more than four (4) pain management clinics.
(a) A pain management clinic may accept only a check or credit card in payment for services provided at the clinic, except as provided in subsection (b).
(b) A payment may be made in cash for a co-pay, coinsurance or deductible when the remainder of the charge for the services will be submitted to the patient's insurance plan for reimbursement.
(a) A violation of this part, or a rule adopted under this part, is grounds for disciplinary action against a practitioner providing services at a pain management clinic licensed under this part by the board that licensed that practitioner.
(b) A practitioner who provides pain management services at an unlicensed pain management clinic is subject to disciplinary action against the practitioner's license, up to and including revocation, as well as an administrative penalty of no less than one thousand dollars ($1,000) per day of unlicensed operation and not exceeding five thousand dollars ($5,000) per day of unlicensed operation, imposed by the board that licensed that practitioner, in accordance with the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5. Before such a penalty may be assessed by the board, the board shall give at least thirty (30) days' notice to the practitioner of the alleged violation of this part.
(c) Any owner of an unlicensed pain management clinic is subject to disciplinary action against the practitioner's license, up to and including revocation, as well as an administrative penalty of no less than one thousand dollars ($1,000) per day of unlicensed operation and not exceeding five thousand dollars ($5,000) per day of unlicensed operation, imposed by the department of health, in accordance with the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act. Any owner may also be charged the costs of any inspection or investigation pursuant to this part, as well as the costs of prosecution and other costs permitted under § 63-1-144 and that formed the basis of disciplinary action provided for in this part. Before such a penalty may be assessed by the department, the department shall give at least thirty (30) days' notice to the owners of the alleged violation of this part.
(a) Notwithstanding any provision of this title or title 53, chapters 10 and 11 to the contrary, no pain management clinic or medical doctor, osteopathic physician, advanced practice registered nurse with certificates of fitness to prescribe, or physician assistant working at a pain management clinic shall be permitted to dispense controlled substances; provided, however, that this subsection (a) shall not prohibit a medical doctor, osteopathic physician, advanced practice registered nurse with certificates of fitness to prescribe, or physician assistant working at a pain management clinic from providing to that practitioner's patient, without charge, a sample of a schedule IV or schedule V controlled substance in a quantity limited to an amount that is adequate to treat the patient for a maximum of seventy-two (72) hours or a sample of a non-narcotic schedule V controlled substance in a quantity limited to an amount that is adequate to treat the patient for a maximum of fourteen (14) days.
(b) For the purposes of this section, “controlled substance” has the meaning given in § 39-17-402.
The commissioner of health and each appropriate occupational professional licensing board governing licensees who may legally prescribe or dispense controlled substances shall prepare a comprehensive report on actions relative to prescription drug abuse and pain management clinics to the general assembly no later than January 31 for actions in the prior calendar year. This report shall summarize the number of complaints received, frequent findings, and actions taken.
(a) Notwithstanding this title or title 68, for the purposes of determining if a health care provider's office is operating as a pain management clinic, the department of health is authorized to conduct an unannounced inspection process, which may include, but not be limited to, review of business and medical records, when the department has reasonable suspicion that the office is operating as an unlicensed pain management clinic. As part of this inspection process, the health care provider's office shall be required to produce evidence that the majority of its patient population is not receiving chronic nonmalignant pain treatment.
(b) If the health care provider's office is unable during the inspection process to provide satisfactory evidence that the office does not meet the definition of a pain management clinic, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that the provider's office was operating as a pain management clinic in any administrative proceeding arising from such inspection process.
(c) The requirements for evidence under this section shall be established by rule.
(d) Any health care provider's office rebuttably presumed to be operating an unlicensed pain management clinic shall be prohibited from admitting any new patients to the practice immediately upon receipt of written notice to any provider at the clinic and all owners and providers at such clinic shall be subject to a hearing upon thirty (30) days' notice before the licensee's licensing board to consider whether the individual's license to practice should be revoked or otherwise disciplined. Pursuant to this part, the commissioner may promulgate rules providing for an informal advisory administrative hearing by a panel appointed by the commissioner to review the department's determination regarding the unlicensed operation of the clinic and to provide nonbinding recommendations to the commissioner concerning those determinations. The informal administrative hearing shall not be subject to the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5. Individuals appointed to any panel pursuant to this part shall be considered “state employees” for purposes of title 8, chapter 42, and § 9-8-307.
(a) On or after July 1, 2017, no person shall own or operate a pain management clinic unless the medical director obtains a license from the department. No license shall be issued unless the pain management clinic has been inspected and found to be in compliance with this part by the department. The department is authorized to charge a reasonable fee for any application for a license.
(b)
(1) Every medical director of a pain management clinic in this state shall receive from the department a pain management clinic license. Notwithstanding any provision of this title to the contrary, the department shall establish a system of license renewals at intervals that will allow for the distribution of the license workload as uniformly as is practicable throughout the calendar year. Licenses issued under this section are valid for twenty-four (24) months and expire on the last day of the last month of the license period. However, during a transition period, or at any time thereafter when the department determines that the volume of work for any given interval is unduly burdensome or costly, either the licenses or renewals, or both of them, may be issued for terms of not less than six (6) months nor more than eighteen (18) months. The fee imposed for any license under this section for a period of other than twenty-four (24) months shall be proportional to the annual fee and modified in no other manner, except that the proportional fee shall be rounded off to the nearest quarter of a dollar (25¢).
(2) In order to transition regulation of pain management clinics to a system of licensure, the department is authorized to require the licensure of a clinic with a certificate holder under this part on the date of the expiration of the certificate. The pain management clinic may continue to operate until the certificate expires, and the certificate shall be deemed to be a license under this part until it expires. On the expiration of the certificate, the clinic may seek an initial licensure under this section.
(c) The department shall inspect each pain management clinic a minimum of once every two (2) years to ensure compliance with this part. The department shall not refuse license renewal based solely upon failure of the department to inspect a pain management clinic as required by this subsection (c).
(d) Any medical director, in order to lawfully establish, conduct, operate, or maintain a pain management clinic shall obtain a license from the department in the following manner:
(1) The medical director shall submit an application on a form to be prepared by the department, showing that the medical director is of good moral character and able to comply with the minimum standards for a pain management clinic and with rules lawfully promulgated under this part. The medical director shall also submit any required fees. The application shall contain the following additional information:
(A) The name or names of all owners;
(B) The location of the pain management clinic;
(C) The name of the medical director, and the identification of any other license or application related to a pain management clinic with which the medical director is associated;
(D) The names and Tennessee license numbers for any employees of the clinics or other persons with whom the clinic has contracted for services;
(E) Whether any owner, employee, or person with whom the clinic contracts has been convicted of any felony; is under indictment for any offense involving the sale, diversion, or dispensing of controlled substances under state or federal law; or has had any license issued by any jurisdiction, under which the person may prescribe, dispense, administer, supply, or sell a controlled substance, restricted, disciplined, or denied; and
(F) Other information as the department may reasonably require;
(2) If the commissioner determines that a license for any pain management clinic will not be granted in accordance with this section, the commissioner shall notify the applicant; and
(3) If the commissioner finds that the applicant complies with this part and the rules promulgated under this part, then the commissioner may recommend and approve the issuance of a license, and a license may be issued by the department licensing the applicant to operate the pain management clinic.
(e)
(1) The commissioner shall promulgate by rule additional licensure requirements that define appropriate health and safety standards necessary to protect the health and welfare of residents.
(2) The commissioner shall promulgate by rule additional financial requirements, such as bonds or liability insurance, to be required of pain management clinics.
(f) Each license to operate a pain management clinic shall expire as provided in subsection (b) and shall become invalid on that date unless renewed. A licensee may renew its license within sixty (60) days following the license expiration date upon payment of the renewal fee in addition to a late penalty established by the commissioner for each month or fraction of a month that payment for renewal is late. A late penalty shall not exceed twice the renewal fee. If a licensee fails to renew its license within sixty (60) days following the license expiration date, the licensee shall reapply for licensure in accordance with the rules established by the commissioner and shall cease operation of the clinic until such time as the clinic is duly licensed. A license shall not be assignable or transferable, shall be issued only for the location named in the application, shall be posted in a conspicuous place in the pain management clinic, and may be renewed as provided in this part.
(g)
(1) The commissioner may deny, suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline or restrict the license issued under this part on any of the following grounds:
(A) A violation of this part or of the rules promulgated pursuant to this part;
(B) The permitting, aiding, or abetting the commission of any illegal act in the pain management clinic;
(C) A license issued in error;
(D) Any conduct or practice found by the commissioner to be detrimental to the welfare of the patients in the pain management clinic;
(E) A conviction of any employee of the clinic for an offense involving the sale, diversion, or dispensing of controlled substances under state or federal law related to the operation of the clinic;
(F) Any owner has been convicted of, pled nolo contendere to, or received deferred adjudication for an offense that constitutes a felony;
(G) Any owner or employee or person who otherwise provides services in the clinic or contracts with the clinic has ever been denied, by any jurisdiction, a license under which the person may prescribe, dispense, administer, supply, or sell a controlled substance;
(H) Any owner or employee or person who otherwise provides services in the clinic or contracts with the clinic has ever held a license issued by any jurisdiction, under which the person may prescribe, dispense, administer, supply, or sell a controlled substance, that has been restricted; and
(I) Any owner or employee or person who otherwise provides services in the clinic or contracts with the clinic has ever been subject to disciplinary action by any licensing entity for conduct that was the result of inappropriately prescribing, dispensing, administering, supplying, or selling a controlled substance.
(2) The commissioner may, after a hearing, hold the case under advisement and make a recommendation as to requirements to be met by the pain management clinic in order to avoid suspension, revocation, or other discipline of a license or suspension of admissions.
(3) The commissioner may promulgate rules defining the sanction structure and associated penalties.
(4) The hearing to deny a license, suspend a license, revoke a license, place a pain management clinic on probation, or impose any other sanction, and judicial review of the commissioner's decision, shall be in accordance with the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act (UAPA), compiled in title 4, chapter 5, and shall include the right to appeal and judicial review under the UAPA.
(h) On or after July 1, 2017, no owner of a pain management clinic shall locate or participate in locating a pharmacy, as defined in § 63-10-204, in which any owner has an ownership interest, in a location that is adjacent to the location of the clinic. Locating a pharmacy in which any owner of a pain management clinic has an ownership interest adjacent to the clinic shall result in the revocation of the license to operate the pain management clinic.
(i) The commissioner is authorized to promulgate, in accordance with the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act rules as are necessary to set fees for licensure, renewal of licensure, late renewal fees, and other fees.
(j) Any licensee or applicant for a license aggrieved by a decision or action of the department or commissioner pursuant to this part may request a hearing before the commissioner.
(a) An entity or person who operates a pain management clinic without obtaining a license pursuant to this part commits a Class A misdemeanor. Each day of operation without a license constitutes a separate offense.
(b) The commissioner of health may authorize an investigation of any person or entity to the extent necessary to determine if the person or entity is engaged in the unlawful operation of a pain management clinic.
(c) The commissioner may, through the office of the attorney general and reporter, apply for injunctive relief in any court of competent jurisdiction to enjoin any person from committing an act in violation of this part. Injunctive proceedings are in addition to, and not in lieu of, all penalties and other remedies prescribed in this part.
(d) A person who aids or requires another person to violate this part or rules promulgated pursuant to this part, who permits a license issued by the commissioner to be used by any person other than the licensee, or who acts to violate or evade this part or rules promulgated pursuant to this part is subject to a civil penalty of not more than five thousand dollars ($5,000) for each violation. Each day in violation of this part constitutes a separate violation.
(1) In those cases where the conditions of any pain management clinic are, or are likely to be, detrimental to the health, safety, or welfare of any patient, the commissioner of health has the authority to suspend treatment of any new or existing patients to the clinic pending a prompt hearing before an administrative judge.
(2) In the event a suspension under this section affects existing patients, the pain management clinic shall provide written notice and other appropriate notice to patients. The pain management clinic shall develop a transition plan to maintain continuity of care for the patients and to minimize the impact of transition to alternative care arrangements. The plan shall be developed in conjunction with the department. The pain management clinic shall assist each patient in locating an alternative placement or treatment resource, which shall be specified in the transition plan. The transition plan shall also include the most recent version of the patient's plan of care. The commissioner may promulgate rules specifying additional components of the transition plan in accordance with this part.
(b) The commissioner is authorized to withdraw the suspension of treatment at any time prior to a hearing, based on information presented to the commissioner showing that such conditions have been and will continue to remain corrected.
(c) Whenever the commissioner suspends the treatment of any new patients, the commissioner shall detail, in a notice to the clinic, the specific violations causing the suspension. The notice shall be prominently posted at the clinic so as to be readily available to the public.
(d) The notice shall detail what conditions are considered detrimental to the health, safety, or welfare of the patients.
(e) Within ten (10) days of receiving the notice described in subsection (d), a pain management clinic shall submit a corrective action plan to the commissioner delineating the measures to be taken to address violations and associated time frames. If it is deemed by the commissioner to be necessary to ensure the health, safety, and welfare of clinic patients, the commissioner may require the clinic to take all necessary actions to correct violations immediately.
(f) If the clinic complies with the conditions described in subsection (e), the commissioner may lift the suspension, unless other conditions exist that warrant an additional suspension or continuation of the suspension. The commissioner has the authority to:
(1) Continue or modify the suspension of treatment;
(2) Withdraw the suspension of treatment;
(3) Suspend or condition the license of the clinic; and
(4) Enter other orders as the commissioner deems necessary.
(g) During a suspension of treatment pursuant to this section, the commissioner may appoint one (1) or more special monitors, if the deficiency threatens serious harm to the patients of the clinic. The commissioner may appoint a special monitor or monitors at any other time, if the commissioner has reason to believe that deficiencies exist in a clinic that are detrimental to the direct care of the patients. Whenever the appointment of monitors is utilized pursuant to this section, the commissioner shall appoint a sufficient number of monitors to ensure their presence in the clinic for a minimum of twenty (20) hours per week. The monitors shall observe the operation of the clinic and shall submit written reports periodically to the commissioner on the operation of the clinic. Persons appointed as monitors shall be duly qualified to discharge their responsibilities. While employed as monitors, they shall represent the department with the power to observe and review all of the clinic's operation, with attention to those aspects for which the suspension of admission was imposed. When appointment of a monitor or monitors is mandated by this section, the clinic shall be liable for the costs of the special monitors, until it has been determined that the deficiencies have been corrected. The commissioner may retain a monitor in a clinic after acceptance of a correction plan and issuance of compliance to evaluate the clinic's continued compliance, but such continued monitoring shall be at the expense of the department. The costs of the monitors for which a clinic is responsible shall be recoverable as follows:
(1) Addition of such costs to the clinic's licensing fee, the renewal of the clinic's license to be contingent upon the prior payment of the costs; or
(2) By suit of the department in the circuit or chancery court of competent jurisdiction to recover the costs.
(h) Judicial review shall be available pursuant to § 4-5-322.
(a) The medical director of each pain management clinic shall report annually to the department of health, on a form promulgated by the department, the following:
(1) The number of physicians, physician assistants, and advanced practice registered nurses who are working in the clinic for each month;
(2) The number of patients seen by the clinic for each month and the number receiving treatment for chronic nonmalignant pain;
(3) Whether the pain management clinic is part of or associated with a hospital; and
(4) Any other information requested by the department.
(b) The department is authorized to promulgate a reporting form concerning such information as the commissioner may reasonably require, and establish the reporting period and dates for submission.
Notwithstanding this part or the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5, any rule promulgated to implement this part shall be provided to the chairs of the health committee of the house of representatives and the health and welfare committee of the senate by the secretary of state, after approval by the attorney general and reporter, at the same time the text of the rule is made available to the government operations committees of the senate and the house of representatives for purposes of conducting the review required by § 4-5-226 in order for the health committee of the house of representatives and the health and welfare committee of the senate to be afforded the opportunity to comment on the rule.
(1) “Commissioner” means the commissioner of health;
(2) “Pain clinic guidelines” means systematically developed standards to assist healthcare providers and pain clinic certificate holders in making decisions concerning the appropriate medical care for chronic nonmalignant pain treatment, as defined in § 63-1-301; and
(3) “Treatment guidelines” means systematically developed statements to assist healthcare providers in making patient decisions concerning appropriate medical care for specific clinical circumstances and settings.
(b) By January 1, 2016, the commissioner shall develop recommended treatment guidelines for prescribing opioids that can be used by prescribers in this state as a guide for caring for patients. This subsection (b) shall not apply to veterinarians.
(c) By January 1, 2017, the commissioner shall develop recommended pain clinic standards for the operation of a pain management clinic, as defined in § 63-1-301, that can be used by certified pain clinics in this state as a guide for operating a pain clinic. This subsection (c) shall not apply to veterinarians.
(d) By January 1, 2020, the commissioner shall:
(1) Study instances when co-prescribing of naloxone with an opioid is beneficial and publish the results to each prescribing board that licenses healthcare professionals who can legally prescribe controlled substances and to the board of pharmacy; and
(2) Include the findings in the treatment guidelines for prescribing opioids developed pursuant to subsection (b).
(e) The commissioner shall review treatment guidelines and the pain clinic guidelines by September 30 of each year and shall cause these guidelines to be posted on the department's website.
(f) The treatment guidelines shall be submitted to each prescribing board that licenses health professionals who can legally prescribe controlled substances and to the board of pharmacy. Each board shall be charged with reviewing the treatment guidelines and determining how the treatment guidelines should be used by that board's licensees.
(g) The pain clinic guidelines shall be submitted to each board that licenses individuals eligible to hold a pain clinic certificate for review and concurrence.
(h) Each board shall notify all of its licensees through routine bulletins or newsletters of the existence of the guidelines and standards.
(a) On or after July 1, 2014, all prescribers who hold a current federal drug enforcement administration (DEA) license and who prescribe controlled substances shall be required to complete a minimum of two (2) hours of continuing education related to controlled substance prescribing biennially to count toward the licensees' mandatory continuing education.
(b) The continuing education must include instruction in the department's treatment guidelines on opioids, benzodiazepines, barbiturates, and carisoprodol, and may include such other topics as medicine addiction, risk management tools, and other topics as approved by the respective licensing boards.
(c) This section shall not apply to veterinarians, providers practicing at a registered pain management clinic as defined in § 63-1-301 or to medical doctors or osteopathic physicians board certified by the American Board of Medical Specialties (ABMS), or American Osteopathic Association (AOA), or the American Board of Physician Specialties (ABPS) in one (1) or more of the following specialties or subspecialties:
(1) “Commissioners” means the commissioner of mental health and substance abuse services and the commissioner of health; and
(2) “Nonresidential buprenorphine treatment guidelines” means systematically developed standards to assist any practitioners authorized by the state to prescribe buprenorphine-containing products for the treatment of opioid use disorder as defined in the latest version of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders.
(b)
(1) By January 1, 2018, the commissioner of mental health and substance abuse services, in collaboration with the commissioner of health, shall develop recommended nonresidential treatment guidelines for the use of buprenorphine that can be used by prescribers in this state as a guide for caring for patients. This subsection (b) shall only apply to practitioners prescribing buprenorphine-containing products for the treatment of opioid use disorder in a nonresidential setting. The guidelines must be consistent with applicable state and federal laws.
(2) Guidelines from nationally recognized organizations, such as the American Society of Addiction Medicine, Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration, and the American Board of Preventative Medicine, must serve as resources in the development of guidelines under this section.
(3) The commissioner of mental health and substance abuse services shall consult with appropriate physicians, alcohol and substance abuse counselors, and other experts to serve as resources in the development of guidelines under this section.
(c) By July 1, 2019, the commissioner of mental health and substance abuse services, in collaboration with the commissioner of health, shall revise the nonresidential buprenorphine treatment guidelines to be consistent with state and federal law and establish protocols for initiating periodic prescriber-initiated-and-led discussions with patients regarding patient readiness to taper down or taper off opioids employed in treatment. The commissioner of mental health and substance abuse services shall consult with appropriate physicians, alcohol and substance abuse counselors, and other experts to serve as resources in the development of guidelines under this subsection (c).
(d) Beginning in 2019, the commissioners shall review the nonresidential buprenorphine treatment guidelines by September 30 of each year and shall cause these guidelines to be posted on both the department of mental health and substance abuse services and the department of health's websites.
(e)
(1) The commissioner of mental health and substance abuse services shall submit the nonresidential buprenorphine treatment guidelines to each health-related board that licenses any practitioner authorized by the state to prescribe buprenorphine-containing products for the treatment of an opioid use disorder as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders and to the board of pharmacy.
(2) Each board shall review the nonresidential buprenorphine treatment guidelines and determine how the nonresidential buprenorphine treatment guidelines should be used by that board's licensees.
(3) Each board shall post the nonresidential buprenorphine guidelines and standards on the licensing board's website.
(f) The commissioner of mental health and substance abuse services shall provide a copy of any guidelines developed pursuant to this section and any revision to those guidelines developed pursuant to this section to the chairs of the health committee of the house of representatives and the health and welfare committee of the senate at the time the guidelines or the revisions are posted on websites of the department of mental health and substance abuse services and the department of health.
(1) “Direct medical care agreement” means a written contractual agreement between a direct medical care provider and an individual patient, or the patient's legal representative, in which:
(A) The direct medical care provider agrees to provide medical care services to the individual patient for an agreed fee over an agreed period of time;
(B) The direct medical care provider will not bill third parties on a fee-for-service basis;
(C) Any per-visit charges under the agreement will be less than the monthly equivalent of the periodic fee;
(D) The agreement describes the scope of the medical care service that is covered by the periodic fee;
(E) The agreement contains the following disclosures, or substantially similar disclosures, that are conspicuously visible in the agreement in bold font:
(i) The agreement does not constitute health insurance under the laws of this state;
(ii) An uninsured patient that enters into a direct medical care agreement may be subject to tax penalties under the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, Public Law 111-148, for failing to obtain insurance;
(iii) Patients insured by health insurance plans that are compliant with the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act already have coverage for certain preventative care benefits at no cost to the patient;
(iv) Payments made by a patient for services rendered under a direct medical care agreement may not count towards the patient's health insurance deductibles and maximum out-of-pocket expenses;
(v) A patient is encouraged to consult with the patient's health insurance plan before entering into the agreement and receiving care; and
(vi) A direct medical care provider who breaches the agreement may be liable for damages and subject to discipline by the appropriate licensing board;
(F) The agreement specifies the duration of the agreement, including automatic renewal periods; and
(G) The patient is not required to pay more than twelve (12) months of the fee in advance. However, the contracted fee may be paid on a payment schedule agreed to by the direct medical care provider and patient that may be due on a monthly, quarterly, or yearly basis;
(2) “Direct medical care provider”:
(A) Means an individual or legal entity that is licensed, registered, or otherwise authorized to provide medical care services in this state under this title, and who chooses to enter into a direct medical care agreement; and
(B) Includes an individual medical care provider or other legal entity, alone or with others professionally associated with the provider or other legal entity;
(3) “Medical care service” includes the screening, assessment, diagnosis, and treatment for the purpose of promotion of health or the detection and management of disease or injury within the competency and training of the direct medical care provider; and
(4) “Medical products” include medical drugs and pharmaceuticals.
(1) Nothing in state law prohibits a patient or a legal representative of a patient from seeking care outside of an insurance plan, or outside of the TennCare or Medicare program, and paying for that care.
(2) Nothing in state law prohibits a medical care provider licensed under this title, or a healthcare facility, licensed under title 33 or 68, from accepting payment for services or medical products outside of an insurance plan.
(3) Nothing in state law prohibits a medical care provider licensed under this title, or a healthcare facility, licensed under title 33 or 68, from accepting payment for services or medical products provided to a TennCare or Medicare beneficiary.
(b) A patient or legal representative does not forfeit insurance benefits, TennCare benefits, or Medicare benefits by purchasing medical services or medical products outside the system.
(c) The offer and provision of medical services or medical products purchased and provided under this part is not an offer of insurance and is not regulated by the insurance laws of this state.
(a) A direct medical care agreement is not insurance and is not subject to regulation by the department of commerce and insurance.
(b) Entering into a direct medical care agreement is not the business of insurance and is not subject to regulation under title 56.
(c) A direct medical care provider, or the agent of a direct medical care provider, is not required to obtain a certification of authority or license under the Tennessee Insurance Producer Licensing Act of 2002, compiled in title 56, chapter 6, to market, sell, or offer to sell a direct medical care agreement.
(d) A direct medical care agreement is not a discount medical plan.
(e) A direct medical care agreement must:
(1) Allow either party to terminate the agreement upon written notice to the other party;
(2) Provide that fees are not earned by the direct medical care provider until the month paid by the periodic fee has been completed; and
(3) Provide that, upon termination of this agreement by the individual patient, all unearned fees are to be returned to the patient.
(a) The department of health shall accept allegations of opioid abuse or diversion. The department shall publicize a means of reporting allegations of opioid abuse or diversion.
(b) Any entity that prescribes, dispenses, or handles opioids shall provide information to employees about reporting suspected opioid abuse or diversion. The information may be provided to each employee individually in writing, documented by the employing entity, or by posting, in a conspicuous location in a nonpublic area regularly used by employees, a sign at least eleven inches (11″) in height and seventeen inches (17″) in width stating:
NOTICE: PLEASE REPORT ANY SUSPECTED ABUSE OR DIVERSION OF OPIOIDS, OR ANY OTHER IMPROPER BEHAVIOR WITH RESPECT TO OPIOIDS, TO THE DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH'S COMPLAINT INTAKE LINE:
[NUMBER OF INTAKE LINE]
(c) The department shall refer reports received to the appropriate health-related board or law enforcement official.
(a) No employee of an entity that prescribes, dispenses, or handles opioids shall be discharged or terminated solely for reporting information in good faith to the department of health.
(b) No person licensed under this title shall suffer an adverse licensure action solely for reporting information in good faith to the department of health.
(c) A person who reports information in good faith to the department of health is immune from civil liability related to the report.
(A) Means a printed, electronic, or oral statement:
(i) That is communicated or disseminated to the general public;
(ii) That:
(a) Is intended to encourage a person to use a practitioner's professional services; or
(b) Names, for commercial purposes, a practitioner in connection with the practice, profession, or institution in which the practitioner is employed, volunteers, or provides healthcare services; and
(iii) That the practitioner or the practitioner's group practice has control over the preparation, communication, or dissemination of the statement; and
(B) Includes the communication or dissemination as described in subdivision (1)(A) of any other communication or statement used in the course of business for the purpose of promoting a practitioner's services offered to the public;
(2) “Deceptive or misleading information”:
(A) Means information that misrepresents or falsely describes a practitioner's profession, skill training, expertise, educational degree, or license; and
(B) Includes physicians claiming to be a specialist or a subspecialist in a named specialty of medicine without having completed the requisite postgraduate residency or fellowship in that field. Acknowledged medical specialties are those listed by the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education (ACGME) and American Osteopathic association (AOE);
(3) “Educational degree” means the degree awarded to the practitioner by a college or university related to the practitioner's profession, which may be used under the scope of the practitioner's license, including use of its acronym;
(4) “License” means the license, certification, registration, or other authorization from the healthcare practitioner's regulating entity that permits the healthcare practitioner to practice in this state;
(5) “Practitioner”:
(A) Means an individual who holds a license pursuant to this title; and
(B) Does not include a veterinarian licensed pursuant to the Tennessee Veterinary Practice Act, compiled in chapter 12 of this title; and
(6) “Profession”:
(A) Means the name or title of the profession of which a practitioner is a member, as specifically allowed for use by individuals who hold a license, license by endorsement, certificate, or registration from a regulatory board under the board's governing statutes or rules; and
(B) Does not include the license or educational degree of a practitioner.
(a) An advertisement that includes a practitioner's name must prominently state the profession or license held by the practitioner.
(b) A written advertisement that includes a practitioner's name must prominently state the profession or license held by the practitioner in a font size and style that makes the information readily apparent to the reader.
(c) An advertisement must not include any deceptive or misleading information.
(d) Subject to subsection (e), a practitioner who communicates or disseminates to the general public an advertisement that violates this section is subject to disciplinary sanctions by the board that issued the practitioner's license.
(e) This section does not prohibit the use of an advertisement using the practitioner's profession, title, or designation associated with the practitioner's educational degree if the advertisement meets the requirements of subsection (a).
(1) Notwithstanding another law to the contrary, a health care provider shall provide to a patient or a patient's authorized representative a copy of such patient's medical records within ten (10) working days of receipt of a written request by the patient or the patient's authorized representative. The health care provider may provide a summary of such patient's medical records, at the option of the health care provider, but the provision of a summary does not satisfy the patient's or representative's right to receive, or serve as a substitute for, a full medical record under this subdivision (a)(1).
(2) If a provider fails to comply with subdivision (a)(1), proper notice shall be given to the provider's licensing board or boards, and the provider may be subject to disciplinary actions that include sanctions and a monetary fine.
(b)
(1)
(A) Except as otherwise provided by law, such patient's medical records shall not constitute public records, and nothing contained in this part shall be deemed to impair any privilege of confidentiality conferred by law on patients, their personal representatives or heirs. Nothing in this subsection (b) shall impair or abridge the right of the patient or the patient's authorized representative to obtain copies of the patient's hospital records in the manner provided in § 68-11-304. Nothing in this subsection (b) shall be construed as prohibiting a patient's medical records from being subpoenaed by a court of competent jurisdiction.
(B) As used in subdivision (b)(1)(A), “medical records” includes any list of patients that is compiled or maintained by or for such patient's health care provider.
(2) Except for any statutorily required reporting to health or government authorities and except for access by an interested third-party payer or their designee for the purpose of utilization review, case management, peer reviews or other administrative functions, the name and address and other identifying information of a patient shall not be divulged. The name and address and other identifying information shall not be sold for any purpose. Any violation of this subdivision (b)(2) shall be an invasion of the patient's right to privacy.
(3) Except as otherwise authorized in this section, title 38, chapter 7, part 1, title 68, chapter 11, part 3 and title 68, chapter 11, part 15, a health care provider shall have in place a policy to protect the dignity of a patient, even if the patient dies or becomes incapacitated, by limiting the use and disclosure of medical records, images, videos or pictures intended to be used for appropriate medical educational purposes, even if the patient's information is de-identified. The policy shall include when and to whom it is appropriate to use and disclose the patient's information, and when a written authorization from the patient or their authorized representative is required, whenever it is reasonably possible to obtain it, prior to use or disclosure. If the patient becomes incapacitated or dies, and there is no legal representative for the patient, the patient's next of kin will be considered to be an authorized representative for the patient. When required the written authorization will include the core elements required by 45 CFR Parts 160 and 164, “Standards for Privacy of Individually Identifiable Health Information.”
(c) As used in this chapter:
(1) “De-identified” means there is no reasonable basis to believe that the information can be used to identify an individual and there is compliance with the requirements for de-identification outlined in 45 CFR Part 164, § 164.514 “Other requirements relating to uses and disclosures of protected health information”;
(2) “Health care provider” means any person required to be licensed under this title;
(3) “Incapacitated” means that a patient is in a physical or mental condition such that the patient is incapable of granting or denying informed consent; and
(4) “Medical records” means all medical histories, records, reports and summaries, diagnoses, prognoses, records of treatment and medication ordered and given, X-ray and radiology interpretations, physical therapy charts and notes and lab reports.
(d) Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to prevent a true, correct and complete copy of the medical records from being subject to a subpoena duces tecum.
(e) To further the effectiveness of the immunization program of the department of health, a physician or any third party payor or health insurance entity regulated by the department of commerce and insurance doing business in Tennessee, or any entity that has elected, organized and qualified as a self-insured entity that provides information to the department regarding a child's immunization status for any of the following purposes shall not be subject to liability or cause of action or a claim of any nature, including any licensing board disciplinary action, arising solely from the disclosure of information concerning such child's immunization status:
(1) Compliance with the laws regarding child care and school attendance;
(2) Ensuring that a child receives such immunization as is medically appropriate or assisting in efforts to ensure a child is appropriately immunized;
(3) Providing immunization information to the immunization registry maintained by the department;
(4) Insuring compliance with the Families First Act, compiled in title 71, chapter 3, part 1; or
(5) Providing information that will allow the department to determine immunization levels in Tennessee.
(f) All information received by the department pursuant to this part from any source shall be confidential and unavailable to the public. Contact of a parent or guardian of a child by the department regarding the child's immunization status as the result of the department's contact with the physician shall not be held to be a breach of confidentiality by the reporting physician.
(g) The names of all children shall be included on the immunization registry established by title 37, chapter 10, part 4, unless such child's custodial parent or guardian objects to the inclusion of the child's name on the immunization registry to the department. The department shall notify the child's custodial parent or guardian in writing within six (6) months of the child's birth that inclusion on the immunization registry is not mandatory. Upon such written or oral request of exclusion by the child's custodial parent or guardian, the department shall either remove the child's name from the immunization registry or refrain from adding the child's name to the immunization registry and confirm in writing to the child's custodial parent or guardian that the child's name has been excluded from the immunization registry.
(h) Notwithstanding this part or any other law to the contrary, it shall not be unlawful to disclose, nor shall there be any liability for disclosing, medical information in response to a subpoena, court order or request authorized by state or federal law.
(i) Providers, as defined in § 71-5-2503, shall make available for inspection and copying to the office of inspector general and the medicaid fraud control unit, upon request, no later than by the close of business on the next business day, a complete set of all medical records requested in connection with an investigation being pursued by the agency or shall provide a compelling reason why the requested records cannot be produced; provided, that no such records shall be removed from the grounds of the provider's office without the provider's consent, unless the office of inspector general or the medicaid fraud control unit reasonably believes that the requested documents are about to be altered or destroyed.
(j) On request of a provider, a duly authorized agent of the requesting agency shall sign a document acknowledging receipt of records produced pursuant to this section. On request of a duly authorized agent of the requesting agency, a duly authorized agent of the provider shall sign a document acknowledging the return of specific records to the provider.
(k) No person or entity shall be subject to any civil or criminal liability for releasing patient information in response to a request from the office of inspector general or the medicaid fraud control unit.
(a) For records other than those involving workers' compensation cases:
(1) The party requesting the patient's medical records in paper format is responsible to the provider or the provider's third-party release of information provider for the reasonable costs of copying and mailing the patient's records. Such reasonable costs must not exceed:
(A) Twenty-five dollars ($25.00) for paper copies of medical records five (5) pages or less in length;
(B) Fifty cents (50¢) per page for each page copied after the first five (5) pages;
(C) The actual cost of mailing;
(D) For producing radiology images in hard copy, no more than twenty dollars ($20.00) per printed film; and
(E) A certification or notary fee, if certification or notarization is requested, must be charged as a flat fee of twenty dollars ($20.00);
(2) The party requesting the patient's records in electronic format is responsible to the provider or the provider's third-party release of information provider for the following fees:
(A) The reasonable fees for fulfilling a patient's request for the patient's own records are governed by the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 (42 U.S.C. § 1320d et seq.), and the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health (HITECH) Act (42 U.S.C. § 201 et seq.), and those acts implementing regulations, which must not exceed the cost of the following:
(i) Labor for copying the protected health information requested by the individual;
(ii) Supplies for creating the paper copy, or electronic media if the individual requests that the electronic copy be provided on portable media; and
(iii) Postage, when the individual has requested the copy or summary or explanation, be mailed; and
(B) For all other requesters, the total fees for electronic medical records provided via portable media, electronic mail, or medical record portal, must comply with the following:
(i) The total charges must be no more than twenty-five dollars ($25.00) for records ten (10) pages or less in length;
(ii) The total charges must be no more than twenty-five cents (25) per page for each page after the first ten (10) pages, up to ninety dollars ($90.00);
(iii) The mailing costs and applicable taxes, if any, must be the actual mailing costs and applicable taxes;
(iv) The fee for producing electronic copies of radiology images must be no more than twenty-five dollars ($25.00) per request for CD, DVD, or USB, or fifteen dollars ($15.00) per request for electronic files emailed or sent via medical record portal;
(v) A certification or notary fee, if certification or notarization is requested, must be charged as a flat fee of twenty dollars ($20.00);
(vi) Charges for copying paper records or faxing paper records are subject to the limits set in subdivision (a)(1); and
(vii) The fees charged for reproducing records of patients involved in a claim or appeal of denial for social security disability benefits must be a flat fee of twenty dollars ($20.00), only when the records are produced electronically;
(3) Upon request, a person providing records pursuant to § 63-2-101 shall provide the records in electronic form unless the records are not kept in electronic form in the usual course of business;
(4) A third-party release of information provider of record copying and related services is subject to the fee limits contained in this section and shall not impose a charge or fee for such service in excess of such fee limits;
(5) The fees charged for reproducing records of patients involved in a workers' compensation claim are as specified in § 50-6-204; and
(6) A healthcare provider shall not charge a fee for copying or notarizing a medical record when requested by the department of health pursuant to a complaint, inspection, or survey as set forth in § 63-1-117.
(b) Any increase in charges for copying and certifying medical records permitted by this section that is above those charges established by this section as it existed on January 1, 2010, shall not apply to requests for medical records made by the department of human services, and charges for copying and certifying medical records requests made by the department of human services shall remain the same as existed under this section as of January 1, 2010.
(c)
(1) Upon request, the provider shall submit a notarized affidavit by the custodian of records certifying that the records provided in response to the request:
(A) Are true and correct copies of records in the custody of the affiant;
(B) Were made at or near the time of the occurrence of the matters set forth by, or from information transmitted by, a person with knowledge of and a business duty to record or transmit those matters;
(C) Were kept in the course of regularly conducted activity; and
(D) Were made by the regularly conducted activity as a regular practice.
(2) In addition to the charge for the copies of the record, the provider may charge up to twenty dollars ($20.00) for the affidavit described in this subsection (c), and the records submitted with that affidavit, and the affidavit shall qualify for the business records exception to the hearsay rule.
(d) Nothing in this chapter shall be construed as superseding any provision of law that establishes specific costs for the reproduction, copying or mailing of records.
(e) Payment of such costs may be required by the provider prior to the records being furnished. Upon payment of the costs described in this section, the patient or a patient's authorized representative shall have the right to receive the medical records without delay.
(f) In workers' compensation cases, a request for medical records shall include a medical or anatomical impairment rating as required by § 50-6-246 [See the Compiler’s Notes].
(a) The board of medical examiners is authorized to promulgate regulations regarding the retention of physician medical records as defined in § 63-2-101(c).
(b) Notwithstanding any law or rule to the contrary, such retention of mammography records shall not exceed ten (10) years.
(a) A healthcare professional subject to this title who is considered a business associate, as that term is defined in 45 CFR § 160.103, shall comply with:
(1) The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) (42 U.S.C. § 1320d et seq.) and standards for privacy of individually identifiable health information required by 45 CFR Parts 160 and 164; and
(2) Federal laws regulating information blocking, as that term is defined in 45 CFR § 171.103.
(b) Notwithstanding another law to the contrary, except as provided in subsection (c), a healthcare provider requesting a medical laboratory test for a patient shall not engage in information blocking as described in 42 U.S.C. § 300jj-52.
(c) The following reports, test results, and any other related results must not be disclosed by a designated entity, as defined under § 68-29-103, to a patient as part of the patient's electronic health record until seventy-two (72) hours after the results are finalized, unless the healthcare provider directs the release of the results before the end of that seventy-two-hour period:
(1) Pathology reports or radiology reports that have a reasonable likelihood of showing a finding of new or recurring malignancy;
(2) Tests that could reveal genetic markers;
(3) A positive HIV test, except that this section does not prevent the disclosure of HIV test results, including viral load and CD4 count test results, to a patient living with HIV by secure internet website or other electronic means if the patient has previously been informed about the results of a positive HIV test pursuant to the requirements of this section; or
(4) Presence of antigens indicating a hepatitis infection.
(d) This section does not apply to a person or entity that is licensed under this title or title 68.
(a) Within this chapter, “podiatrist” means one who examines, diagnoses or treats, medically mechanically or surgically, the ailments of the human foot, ankle and soft tissue structures extending no higher than the distal tibial metaphyseal flair, including the use and prescribing of drugs and medications, but excluding the direct applications of general anesthesia by a podiatrist and the amputation of the foot. A podiatrist may perform Achilles tendon repair, subject to subsection (b), but may not perform surgery on Pilon fractures or tibial fractures that do not enter the ankle joint.
(b) A licensed podiatrist may perform ankle surgery only when that podiatrist meets the requirements of either subdivision (b)(1) or (b)(2):
(1) Was, prior to October 2, 1995, credentialed to perform ankle surgery by a JCAHO accredited hospital in Tennessee or JCAHO accredited ambulatory surgical treatment center in Tennessee; provided, that a podiatrist who qualifies to perform ankle surgery under this subdivision (b)(1) must, if the podiatrist wishes to continue to perform ankle surgery:
(A) Notify the board as to the hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center at which the podiatrist was credentialed to perform ankle surgery prior to October 2, 1995;
(B) Obtain and maintain evidence of obtaining at least ten (10) hours of approved continuing education related to ankle surgery annually; and
(C) Comply with any other requirements established by the board to ensure continued proficiency in performing ankle surgery; or
(2) Has completed a surgical residency program at least twenty-four (24) months in length that has been approved by the council on podiatric medical education and is currently eligible for certification to perform reconstructive rearfoot/ankle surgery by the American Board of Podiatric Surgery; provided, that a podiatrist who qualifies to perform ankle surgery under this subdivision (b)(2) must obtain certification to perform reconstructive rearfoot/ankle surgery from the American Board of Podiatric Surgery within six (6) years of May 24, 2000, or within six (6) years of first becoming eligible for certification, whichever date is later, and may not continue to perform ankle surgery if that podiatrist has not obtained certification by the end of the six-year period.
(c) A licensed podiatrist may perform ankle surgery only in an accredited hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center licensed under title 68 at which the podiatrist has surgical privileges to perform ankle surgery. For purposes of this subsection (c), an accredited hospital is one that is accredited by joint commission or the American Osteopathic Association, and an accredited ambulatory surgical treatment center is one that is accredited by joint commission, Accreditation Association for Ambulatory Health Care or American Association for Accreditation of Ambulatory Surgical Facilities. A podiatrist who performs ankle surgery in an ambulatory surgical treatment center must first have surgical privileges to perform ankle surgery at a local hospital. A licensed podiatrist who performs ankle surgery must meet the same standard of care applicable to orthopedic surgeons who perform ankle surgery.
(d) Licensed podiatrists may perform nonsurgical care on the ankle without meeting the requirements of subsection (b).
(e) A licensed podiatrist may collaborate with a physician assistant or an orthopedic physician assistant licensed pursuant to chapter 19 of this title. A podiatrist collaborating with a physician assistant pursuant to this subsection (e) shall comply with the requirements of and any rules adopted pursuant to §§ 63-19-106 and 63-19-107 governing collaboration with a physician assistant. A podiatrist collaborating with an orthopedic physician assistant pursuant to this subsection (e) shall comply with the requirements of and any rules adopted pursuant to §§ 63-19-203 — 63-19-205 governing collaboration with an orthopedic physician assistant.
(a) A board of examiners is established, to be known by the name and title of “board of podiatric medical examiners.”
(b) The governor shall appoint four (4) persons who have been licensed podiatrists for a period of at least two (2) years in this state as members of this board. The terms of office shall be for four (4) years. In making appointments to the board of podiatric medical examiners, the governor shall strive to ensure that at least one (1) person serving on the board is sixty (60) years of age or older and that at least one (1) person serving on the board is a member of a racial minority.
(c) Upon the expiration of the term of a member, the governor shall appoint the member's successor for a term of four (4) years.
(d) The governor has the power to remove from office members of the board for neglect of duties as required by this chapter, or for malfeasance in office and incompetency or for unprofessional conduct. The governor has the authority to fill any vacancy caused by the removal of any member of the board by the member's resignation or death, from a list of all licensed podiatrists who have practiced not less than two (2) years in this state.
(a) The board shall elect a chair and a secretary from its own members.
(b) The board shall hold one (1) regular meeting in each year and such additional meetings at such times and places as it may determine.
(c) Each member of the board shall receive one hundred dollars ($100) per diem when actually engaged in the discharge of official duties and, in addition, shall be reimbursed for all travel and other necessary expenses. All expenses shall be claimed and paid in accordance with prevailing travel regulations as promulgated by the department of finance and administration and approved by the attorney general and reporter.
(a) All fees and moneys from whatever source coming into the hands of the board shall be paid by the board to the state treasurer and become a part of the general fund.
(b) The commissioner of finance and administration shall make allotments out of the general fund for the proper expenditures of the board, and no expenditure may be made by the board until allotment therefor has been made by the commissioner. The allotments for the operation of the board shall be disbursed under the general budgetary laws of the state.
The board has the powers and duties, in addition to powers and duties granted to or imposed upon it by the other sections of this chapter, to:
(1) Adopt and promulgate rules and regulations as may be necessary to govern its proceedings and carry into effect the purpose of this chapter;
(2) Conduct examinations to ascertain the qualifications and fitness of applicants for a license to practice podiatry in this state;
(3) Provide standards by which podiatry schools and colleges shall be approved;
(4) Direct the division to issue a license for applicants who successfully pass the examination for the practice of podiatry;
(5) Conduct hearings, to revoke or suspend any license or certificate under the authority of this chapter or any previous laws authorizing the holder thereof to practice podiatry for violations by a licensee of any of the provisions of this chapter or any rule or regulation of the board properly adopted and promulgated by the board; and
(6) Sponsor, conduct or approve such educational programs as are necessary to carry out and make effective this chapter.
(a) It is unlawful for any person to practice or attempt to practice podiatry in this state unless such person has been issued a valid and current license to practice podiatry by this board as provided by this chapter.
(b) If any person uses any name or title that would designate that person as a podiatrist or imply that that person was or is qualified to practice podiatry under this chapter, it is deemed prima facie evidence of practicing within the meaning of this chapter.
This chapter shall not apply to the commissioned physicians and surgeons of the United States army, navy, air force or marine hospital service in the actual performance of their official duties, nor to physicians and surgeons or to osteopathic physicians and surgeons regularly licensed under the laws of this state, nor to visiting podiatrists called into consultation in this state from another state where they are duly qualified under the laws of that state to practice podiatry.
(a) Any person desiring an academic license to participate in a residency program shall:
(1) Apply on a form prescribed by the board or via online application for an academic license;
(2) Pay a fee as determined by the board; and
(3) Have a residency program accepted by the board certify that the applicant has been accepted for its program.
(b) The academic license shall terminate upon the applicant leaving the residency program.
(c) Any person desiring to become licensed to practice podiatry in this state must:
(1) Make application to the secretary of the board on a form prescribed by the board;
(2) Pay an application fee as determined by the board;
(3) Pass the examination conducted or accepted by the board; and
(4) Successfully complete at least a one-year residency program approved by the Council on Podiatric Medical Education or its successor organization.
(d) The board shall have the authority to issue locum tenens licenses to podiatrists licensed in another state who wish to practice podiatry in this state for a limited period of time and who meet all the requirements established by the board by rule for a locum tenens license.
No person shall be entitled to take any examination for a license unless that person furnishes the board with satisfactory proof that the person is at least eighteen (18) years of age, is of good moral character and has graduated from a college of podiatric medicine which is accredited by the Council on Podiatric Medical Education or its successor organization.
(1) The board may conduct examinations at such times and places as it may designate.
(2) Examinations shall be in the English language, written and clinical, and shall include subjects of histology, surgery, hygiene, dermatology, anatomy, physiology, chemistry, bacteriology, pathology, diagnosis and treatment, materia medica and therapeutics, and clinical podiatry and such additional subjects as are pertinent to podiatry; but such examinations shall be so limited in their scope as to cover only the requirements for podiatry education as provided in this chapter.
(3) The board may accept the report of the National Board of Podiatric Medical Examiners on any examinee.
(b) The board shall establish the minimum passing grade by regulation.
An applicant who fails to pass an examination satisfactory to the board, and is therefore refused a license, is entitled, within six (6) months after such refusal, to a reexamination upon payment of an additional fee as set annually by the board for each such reexamination.
(a) If an applicant successfully passes the examination provided by this chapter and meets all of the requirements of this chapter, the board shall direct the division to issue the applicable license.
(b)
(1) When the board receives a completed application for initial licensure from an applicant, then the board shall, within sixty (60) days from the date the board receives the completed application:
(A) Render a decision on the application; or
(B) Inform the applicant of the need to appear before the board.
(2) As used in this subsection (b), “completed application” means an application that satisfies all statutory and board rule requirements.
(a) The board, in its discretion, may waive the examination required by § 63-3-109(c)(3) and may issue a license to any applicant who holds or possesses a valid license to practice podiatry in another state; provided, that the requirements for licensure in such state are, in the opinion of the board, at least equivalent to the requirements for licensure provided by this chapter and that such applicant pays a fee as set by the board.
(b)
(1) When the board receives a completed application for licensure from an applicant who is licensed in another state or territory of the United States or in the District of Columbia, then the board shall, within sixty (60) days from the date the board receives the completed application:
(A) Render a decision on the application; or
(B) Inform the applicant of the need to appear before the board.
(2) As used in this subsection (b), “completed application” means an application that satisfies all statutory and board rule requirements.
(a) Each person licensed to practice as a podiatrist in this state shall biennially apply to the board for renewal of the person's license and shall pay a renewal fee set by the board. A podiatrist who fails to renew the license by the date of expiration of the license shall not continue to practice as a podiatrist in this state.
(b) A podiatrist who fails to timely renew the license may seek reinstatement from the board. The board may reinstate the license upon good cause shown, upon payment of all past due renewal fees and a late renewal fee and upon compliance with any other reasonable conditions imposed by the board.
(c) The board may utilize the renewal system described in § 63-1-107.
(d) Any licensed podiatrist who has retired from practice in this state shall not be required to renew the license if the person retired from practice files with the board an affidavit of retirement on a form furnished by the board. The affidavit shall state the date on which the person retired from practice and such other facts as the board deems necessary to verify retirement. If the person thereafter wishes to reenter practice in this state, the person shall apply for license reactivation, pay the reactivation fee set by the board and meet such other reasonable requirements deemed necessary by the board.
(a) As a condition of the biennial renewal of a podiatrist license, every licensed podiatrist must obtain at least fifteen (15) hours of continuing medical education each calendar year in programs approved by the board. The only basis upon which a podiatrist may seek an exemption from this requirement or an extension of time for meeting this requirement is illness or disability.
(b) Podiatrists who have properly retired their licenses pursuant to § 63-3-115(d) are exempt from the requirement of subsection (a).
Licensed podiatrists shall observe and be subject to all state and municipal regulations relating to the control of contagious and infectious diseases and all matters pertaining to public health, making reports to proper health officers in the same manner as other practitioners of the healing arts are required to make.
A physician assistant collaborating with a licensed podiatrist shall not provide services that are outside of the scope of practice of a podiatrist as set forth in § 63-3-101 and may prescribe only drugs that are rational to the practice of podiatry. An orthopedic physician assistant collaborating with a licensed podiatrist shall not provide services that are outside of the scope of practice of a podiatrist as set forth in § 63-3-101.
(a) The board has the duty and authority to suspend for a specified time, within the discretion of the board or to revoke any license to practice podiatry or to otherwise discipline any licensee or refuse to grant any certificate of fitness whenever the licensee or applicant is found guilty of any of the following acts or offenses:
(1) Fraud in procuring a license or certificate;
(2) Conviction of a felony, conviction of any offense under state or federal drug laws or conviction of any offense involving moral turpitude;
(3) Habitual intoxication or personal misuse of any drugs;
(4) Immoral, unethical, unprofessional or dishonorable conduct;
(5) Solicitation by agents or persons or profiting by the acts of those representing themselves to be agents of the licensee or the certificate holder;
(6) Division of fees or agreeing to split or divide fees received for professional services with any person for bringing or referring a patient;
(7) Professional connection or association with any person, firm or corporation in any manner in an effort to avoid and circumvent this chapter or lending one's name to another for the illegal practice of podiatry by such person;
(8) Violation or attempted violation, directly or indirectly, or assisting in or abetting the violation of, or conspiring to violate this chapter or any lawful order of the board; issued pursuant thereto, or any criminal statute of this state;
(9) Giving of testimonials, directly or indirectly, concerning the supposed virtue of secret therapeutic agents or proprietary preparations, such as remedies, vaccines or other articles or materials that are offered to the public, claiming radical cure or prevention of disease by their use;
(10) Any other unprofessional or unethical conduct that may be specified by the board from time to time by means of rules and regulations duly published and promulgated by the board or the violation of any provision of this chapter;
(11) Making false statements or representations or being guilty of fraud or deceit in the practice of podiatry;
(12) Invasion of a field of practice in which the licensee is not licensed to practice or is not within the limits of the licensee's respective callings;
(13) Dispensing, prescribing or otherwise distributing any controlled substance or any other drug not in the course of professional practice or not in good faith to relieve pain and suffering, or not to cure an ailment, physical infirmity or disease;
(14) Dispensing, prescribing or otherwise distributing any controlled substance, controlled substance analogue or any other drug to any person in violation of any law of the state or of the United States;
(15) Practicing podiatry under any trade name or a name designating a given location or the name of another podiatrist or any name other than that which appears on the practitioner's license or using any title other than “podiatrist”; provided, that “foot specialist” may be used as an explanatory term of the title “podiatrist” and not alone or as a substitute for the title “podiatrist”;
(16) Willful violation of the rules and regulations that may be promulgated by the board of podiatric medical examiners to regulate advertising by practitioners who are under the jurisdiction of the board;
(17) Making or signing in one's professional capacity any certificate that is known to be false at the time one makes or signs such certificate;
(18) Engaging in the practice of podiatry when mentally or physically unable to safely do so; or
(19) Gross health care liability or a pattern of continued or repeated health care liability, ignorance, negligence or incompetence in the course of the practice of podiatry.
(b) The board of podiatric medical examiners may adopt rules and regulations to regulate the nature, manner, content and extent of advertising by practitioners who are under the jurisdiction of the board. All methods must be allowed such as: newspaper, radio and television.
(c)
(1) For purposes of enforcement of this section, the board shall, upon probable cause, have authority to compel an applicant or licensee to submit to a mental and/or physical examination by a designated committee of at least three (3) practicing physicians, including a psychiatrist where a question of mental condition may be involved.
(2) The applicant or licensee shall have the right to have an independent medical practitioner present during such examination and to have an independent physical or mental examination, the report of which shall be filed with the board for consideration.
(3) The committee will submit a report of its findings to the board, which will then hold a hearing as provided in § 63-3-120.
(d) An action taken under this section shall be subject to the applicable provisions of the Fresh Start Act that are compiled in chapter 1, part 1 of this title.
All proceedings for disciplinary action against a licensee under this chapter shall be conducted in accordance with the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5.
(a) The board, in addition to the powers and duties expressly granted by this chapter in the matter of suspension or revocation of a license and in the matter of the refusal to issue a certificate, is authorized and empowered to petition any circuit or chancery court, having jurisdiction, to enjoin any person who is practicing or attempting to practice podiatry without possessing a valid license to so practice and to enjoin any person, firm or corporation from performing any act or rendering any service that constitutes the practice of podiatry as defined by this chapter. No injunction bond shall be required of the board.
(b) Jurisdiction is conferred upon the circuit and chancery courts of the state to hear and determine such causes as chancery causes and to exercise full and complete jurisdiction in such injunctive proceedings.
(a) The board at all times has the power to call upon the district attorneys general for the state in the various districts to assist the board.
(b) It is hereby declared to be the duty of all district attorneys general throughout the state to assist the board, upon its request, in any suit for injunction or prosecution instituted by the board without charge or additional compensation to the district attorneys general.
(1) Any person who violates any provision of this chapter commits a Class B misdemeanor.
(2) Upon being convicted of any violation of any provision of this chapter, any person who again violates any of the provisions of this chapter commits a Class E felony.
(b) Any person who has been enjoined by a court of competent jurisdiction from performing any acts or rendering any services that constitute the practice of podiatry as defined by this chapter who thereafter willfully violates the terms of the injunction by again performing such acts or rendering such services commits a Class E felony.
No part or portion of this chapter shall be deemed to prohibit the usual and customary commercial sale and adjustment of foot appliances and remedies or shoes in retail stores.
(1) The board shall adopt rules and regulations that establish minimum educational standards and criteria for persons operating X-ray equipment for diagnostic purposes in podiatrist offices.
(2) These regulations may include, but not be limited to, provisions for grandfathering, waiver, reciprocity, renewal, continuing education, fees, examination and hardship cases.
(b) After the effective date of the rules and regulations, no person shall perform X-ray procedures in a podiatrist office who does not meet these standards and who has not received a certificate of proficiency from the board.
(a) The board shall promulgate rules governing the assessment of costs against a licensee or other person found by the board to have violated any provision of this chapter. The costs assessed by the board may include only those costs directly related to the prosecution of the charges against the licensee or other person, including investigatory costs where appropriate. The board shall determine the appropriate amount of costs, if any, to be assessed in a contested case. These costs shall be reasonable and proportionate in light of the violation committed by the licensee or other person.
(b)
(1) Any elected officer of the board, or any duly appointed or elected chair has the authority to administer oaths to witnesses. Upon probable cause being established, the board, by a vote of two-thirds (⅔) of the members to which the board is entitled, may issue subpoenas for the attendance of witnesses and the production of documents and records.
(2) Service of a subpoena issued by the board shall be made by the sheriff of the county of residence of the licensee or person upon whom the subpoena is served.
(3)
(A) A licensee or person served by subpoena shall have thirty (30) days to request in writing a hearing before the board for the sole purpose of making a special appearance to quash or modify the subpoena. The subpoena for attendance of the person or the production of books and records shall be stayed until the board votes upon the request to quash or modify the subpoena. A majority vote of the members to which the board is entitled shall be required to quash or modify a subpoena.
(B) A motion to appeal from a decision by the board regarding a request to quash or modify a subpoena shall be made to the chancery court in Davidson County within fifteen (15) days of such decision.
(4) If any witness fails or refuses to obey a subpoena issued by it, the board is authorized to make application to any court of record in this state within the jurisdiction of which the witness is found or resides; and the court shall have power to attach the body of the witness and compel the witness to appear before the board and give testimony or produce books, records or papers as ordered. Any failure to obey the court order may be punished by the court issuing the order as a civil contempt.
(5) Each witness who appears before the board by order of the board shall receive for attendance the compensation provided by law for attendance of witnesses in a court of record, which shall be paid from the funds of the board in the same manner as all other expenses of the board are paid.
(a) Any handwritten prescription order for a drug prepared by a podiatrist who is authorized by law to prescribe a drug must be legible so that it is comprehensible by the pharmacist who fills the prescription. The handwritten prescription order must contain the name of the prescribing podiatrist, the name and strength of the drug prescribed, the quantity of the drug prescribed, handwritten in letters or in numerals, instructions for the proper use of the drug and the month and day that the prescription order was issued, recorded in letters or in numerals or a combination thereof. The prescribing podiatrist must sign the handwritten prescription order on the day it is issued, unless it is a standing order issued in a hospital, a nursing home or an assisted care living facility as defined in § 68-11-201.
(b) Any typed or computer-generated prescription order for a drug issued by a podiatrist who is authorized by law to prescribe a drug must be legible so that it is comprehensible by the pharmacist who fills the prescription order. The typed or computer-generated prescription order must contain the name of the prescribing podiatrist, the name and strength of the drug prescribed, the quantity of the drug prescribed, recorded in letters or in numerals, instructions for the proper use of the drug, and the month and day that the typed or computer-generated prescription order was issued, recorded in letters or in numerals or a combination thereof. The prescribing podiatrist must sign the typed or computer-generated prescription order on the day it is issued, unless it is a standing order issued in a hospital, nursing home or an assisted care living facility as defined in § 68-11-201.
(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prevent a podiatrist from issuing a verbal prescription order.
(d)
(1) All handwritten, typed or computer-generated prescription orders must be issued on either tamper-resistant prescription paper or printed utilizing a technology that results in a tamper-resistant prescription that meets the current centers for medicare and medicaid service guidance to state medicaid directors regarding § 7002(b) of the United States Troop Readiness, Veterans' Care, Katrina Recovery, and Iraq Accountability Appropriations Act of 2007, P.L. 110-28, and meets or exceeds specific TennCare requirements for tamper-resistant prescriptions.
(2) Subdivision (d)(1) shall not apply to prescriptions written for inpatients of a hospital, outpatients of a hospital where the doctor or other person authorized to write prescriptions writes the order into the hospital medical record and then the order is given directly to the hospital pharmacy and the patient never has the opportunity to handle the written order, a nursing home or an assisted care living facility as defined in § 68-11-201 or inpatients or residents of a mental health hospital or residential facility licensed under title 33 or individuals incarcerated in a local, state or federal correctional facility.
As used in this part, unless the context otherwise requires:
(1) “Board” means the board that licenses and regulates podiatrists in Tennessee in part 1 of this chapter;
(2) “Commissioner” means the commissioner of health;
(3) “Custom fabricated and fitted device” means an orthosis, prosthesis or pedorthic device that is fabricated to original measurements or to a mold for use by a patient in accordance with a prescription from a health care practitioner authorized by law to write such prescriptions and that requires substantial clinical and technical judgment in its design and fitting;
(4) “Custom fitted device” means a prefabricated orthosis, prosthesis or pedorthic device sized or modified for use by the patient in accordance with a prescription from a health care practitioner authorized by law to write such prescriptions that requires substantial clinical judgment and substantive alteration for appropriate use;
(5) “Department” means the department of health;
(6) “Director” means the director of the division of health related boards;
(7) “Division” means the division of health related boards;
(8) “Facility” means the business location where orthotic, prosthetic or pedorthic care is provided. In the case of an orthotic/prosthetic facility, the orthotic/prosthetic facility has the appropriate clinical and laboratory space and equipment to provide comprehensive orthotic or prosthetic care; and, in the case of a pedorthic facility, the pedorthic facility has the appropriate clinical space and equipment to provide pedorthic care. Licensed orthotists, prosthetists and pedorthists must be available to either provide care or to supervise the provision of care by nonlicensed staff;
(9) “Licensed orthotist” means a person who is licensed under this part to practice orthotics and who represents the person to the public by title or description of services that includes the term “orthotic,” “orthotist,” “brace” or a similar title or description of services;
(10) “Licensed pedorthist” means a person who is licensed under this part to practice pedorthics and who represents the person to the public by the title or description of services that includes the term “pedorthic,” “pedorthist” or a similar title or description of services;
(11) “Licensed prosthetist” means a person who is licensed under this part to practice prosthetics and who represents the person to the public by title or description of services that includes the term “prosthetic,” “prosthetist,” “artificial limb” or a similar title or description of services;
(12) “Off-the-shelf device” means a prefabricated prosthesis or orthosis sized or modified for use by the patient in accordance with a prescription from a health care practitioner authorized by law to write such prescriptions that does not require substantial clinical judgment and substantive alteration for appropriate use;
(13) “Orthosis” means a custom designed, fabricated, fitted or modified device to correct, support or compensate for a neuro-musculoskeletal disorder or acquired condition. “Orthosis” does not include fabric or elastic supports, corsets, arch supports, low-temperature plastic splints, trusses, elastic hoses, canes, crutches, soft cervical collars, dental appliances or other similar devices that are carried in stock and sold without modification as over-the-counter items by a drug store, department store, corset shop or surgical supply facility;
(14) “Orthotic and prosthetic education program” means a course of instruction accredited by the Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs (CAAHEP), consisting of:
(A) An adequate curriculum of college level training and instruction in math, physics, biology, chemistry and psychology; and
(B) A specific curriculum in orthotic or prosthetic courses, including:
(i) Lectures covering pertinent anatomy, biomechanics, pathomechanics, prosthetic-orthotic components and materials, training and functional capabilities, prosthetic or orthotic performance evaluation, prescription considerations, etiology of amputations and disease processes necessitating prosthetic or orthotic use and medical management;
(ii) Subject matter related to pediatric and geriatric problems;
(iii) Instruction in acute care techniques, such as immediate and early post-surgical prosthetics and fracture bracing techniques; and
(iv) Lectures, demonstrations and laboratory experiences related to the entire process of measuring, casting, fitting, fabricating, aligning and completing prostheses or orthoses;
(15) “Orthotics” means the science and practice of evaluating, measuring, designing, fabricating, assembling, fitting, adjusting or servicing an orthosis, under an order from a licensed health care practitioner authorized by law to issue such an order, for the correction or alleviation of neuromuscular or musculoskeletal dysfunction, disease, injury or deformity;
(16) “Orthotist” means an allied health professional who is specifically trained and educated to provide or manage the provision of a custom-designed, fabricated, modified and fitted external orthosis to an orthotic patient, based on a clinical assessment and a prescription from a health care practitioner authorized by law to write such prescriptions, to restore physiological function or cosmesis;
(17) “Over-the-counter device” means a prefabricated, mass-produced device that is prepackaged and requires no professional advice or judgment in either size selection or use, including fabric or elastic supports, corsets, generic arch supports and elastic hose;
(18) “Pedorthic device” means therapeutic footwear, foot orthoses for use at the ankle or below and modified footwear made for therapeutic purposes, as prescribed by a licensed health care practitioner authorized by law to issue such prescription. “Pedorthic device” does not include nontherapeutic accommodative inlays or nontherapeutic accommodative footwear, regardless of method of manufacture, shoe modifications made for nontherapeutic purposes, unmodified, over-the-counter shoes or prefabricated foot care products;
(19) “Pedorthic education program” means a course of instruction accredited by the Board for Certification in Pedorthics, consisting of:
(A) A basic curriculum of instruction in foot-related pathology of diseases, anatomy and biomechanics;
(B) A specific curriculum in pedorthic courses, including lectures covering shoes, foot orthoses and shoe modifications, pedorthic components and materials, training and functional capabilities, pedorthic performance evaluation, prescription considerations, etiology of disease processes necessitating use of pedorthic devices, medical management and subject matter related to pediatric and geriatric problems; and
(C) Lectures, demonstrations, and laboratory experiences related to the entire process of measuring and casting, fitting, fabricating, aligning and completing pedorthic devices;
(20) “Pedorthics” means the science and practice of evaluating, measuring, designing, fabricating, assembling, fitting, adjusting or servicing a pedorthic device, under an order from a licensed health care practitioner authorized by law to issue such order for the correction or alleviation of neuromuscular or musculoskeletal dysfunction, disease, injury or deformity;
(21) “Pedorthist” means a person who measures, designs, fabricates, fits or services pedorthic devices and assists in the formulation of the order of pedorthic devices, as ordered by a licensed health care practitioner authorized by law to issue such order for the support or correction of disabilities caused by neuro-musculoskeletal diseases, injuries or deformities;
(22) “Person” means a natural person;
(23) “Prosthesis” means a custom designed, fabricated, fitted or modified device to replace an absent external limb, for the purpose of restoring physiological function or cosmesis. “Prosthesis” does not include artificial eyes, ears or dental appliances, cosmetic devices such as artificial breasts, eyelashes or wigs or other devices that do not have a significant impact on the musculoskeletal functions of the body;
(24) “Prosthetics” means the science and practice of evaluating, measuring, designing, fabricating, assembling, fitting, adjusting or servicing a prosthesis, under an order from a licensed health care practitioner authorized by law to issue such order;
(25) “Prosthetist” means an allied health professional who is specifically trained and educated to provide or manage the provision of a custom designed, fabricated, modified and fitted external limb prosthesis to a prosthetic patient, based on a clinical assessment and a prescription from a health care practitioner authorized to write such prescriptions, to restore physiological function or cosmesis;
(26) “Prosthetist/Orthotist” means a person who practices both disciplines of prosthetics and orthotics and who represents the person to the public by title or by description of services; and
(27) “Resident” means a person who has completed an education program in either orthotics or prosthetics and is continuing such person's clinical education in a residency program approved by the board.
(a) The board shall adopt rules and regulations, promulgated in compliance with all requirements of the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5, to:
(1) Establish licensure categories and issue licenses for prosthetists, orthotists and pedorthists;
(2) Establish the qualifications, educational courses, curriculum, hours and standards that are prerequisite to issuance of all levels and types of licensure established pursuant to subdivision (a)(1); provided, however, that such qualifications shall include the following:
(A) To qualify for a license to practice orthotics or prosthetics, a person shall:
(i) Possess a baccalaureate degree or semester hours equivalent to four (4) years of study at a four-year college or university;
(ii) Complete the amount of formal training, including, but not limited to, any necessary hours of classroom education and clinical practice required by the board;
(iii) Complete a clinical residency in the professional area for which a license is sought, in accordance with standards, guidelines, or procedures for residencies inside or outside this state established and approved by the board. The majority of training shall be devoted to services performed under the supervision of a licensed practitioner of orthotics or prosthetics or a person who has obtained certification from the American Board for Certification in Orthotics and Prosthetics, Inc. or the Board for Orthotist/Prosthetist Certification;
(iv) Pass all written, practical and oral examinations that are required and approved by the board; and
(v) Be qualified to practice in accordance with commonly accepted standards of orthotic and prosthetic care acceptable to the board;
(B) To qualify for a license to practice pedorthics, a person shall:
(i) Possess a high school diploma or comparable credential approved by the board;
(ii) Complete the amount of formal training, including, but not limited to, any necessary hours of classroom education and clinical practice required by the board;
(iii) Pass all examinations that are required and approved by the board;
(iv) Complete a qualified work experience program or internship in pedorthics, in accordance with standards and procedures established by the board; and
(v) Be qualified to practice in accordance with commonly accepted standards of pedorthic care acceptable to the board; and
(C) A person may be licensed in more than one (1) discipline;
(3) Establish the circumstances or conditions, if any, under which persons shall be entitled to exemption from licensure during training, while waiting to take or receive the results of any required examination or upon meeting specified minimum educational and clinical qualifications;
(4) Select the examination or examinations to be utilized as the board's licensure examination or examinations and the prerequisites, if any, for admission to the examination or examinations. The board is authorized to enter into a contract or agreement with the chosen examination service or services or select an intermediary between the board and the examination service or services to process applicants for the examination or examinations;
(5) Establish any other criteria for issuance of licensure that are reasonably related to the safe and competent performance of prosthetics, orthotics and pedorthics;
(6) Accredit continuing education courses;
(7)
(A) Establish the fees to be paid for each of the following:
(i) Application for licensure;
(ii) Renewal or reinstatement of licensure;
(iii) Late renewal of licensure;
(iv) Application for continuing education course accreditation; and
(v) Duplicate or replacement license;
(B) The fees shall be set at a level that is adequate to pay all of the expenses of implementing and administering this part. All deposits and disbursements shall be handled in accordance with § 63-1-137;
(8) Establish the continuing education requirements for license holders, which shall include the frequency of reporting, number of hours, types of courses, approval of courses, methods of proving compliance, penalties for violation and all fees necessary for implementation of the continuing education process;
(9) Regulate the nature, manner, content and extent of advertising by persons licensed under this part;
(10) Delineate the actions relative to therapeutic footwear and medical devices for the foot and ankle that must be performed by licensed health care practitioners; and
(11) Establish a registration process for residents as prescribed in § 63-3-209(2)(B).
(b) The board shall have the authority to:
(1) Conduct disciplinary hearings, in accordance with the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act; and
(a) Licenses shall be issued and renewed by the board pursuant to the division's biennial issuance and renewal system.
(b) Any person who has been issued a license to practice under this part and who wishes to retire that license shall file with the board an affidavit, on a form to be furnished by the board, stating the date on which the person retired from such practice and such other facts that tend to verify such retirement, as the board deems necessary. Any person who wishes to reenter practice after retiring such person's license must request reinstatement of licensure.
(c) Any license issued by the board shall contain the name of the person to whom it is issued, the address of the person, the date and number of the license and such other information as the board deems necessary. The address contained on the license shall be the address where all correspondence and renewal forms from the board shall be sent. Any person whose address changes shall, within thirty (30) days after the address change, notify the board of the address change. The most recent address contained in the board's records for each license holder shall be the address deemed sufficient for purposes of service of process.
(d) Every person issued a license pursuant to this part shall either keep such license prominently displayed in the office or place in which such person practices or have it stored in a place from which it can be immediately produced upon request of a patient or a representative of the department.
(e) Any person whose license has been lost or destroyed may make application to the board for a replacement. Such application shall be accompanied by an affidavit setting out the facts concerning the loss or destruction of the original license.
(f) Any person whose name is changed by marriage or court order may surrender the person's license and apply to the board for a replacement license.
(2) Permanently or temporarily withhold issuance of a license;
(3) Suspend, limit or restrict a previously issued license, for such time and in such manner as the board may determine;
(4) Reprimand, suspend, revoke or take such other disciplinary action in relation to an applicant or license holder as the board, in its discretion, may deem proper; or
(5) Permanently revoke a license.
(b) The grounds upon which the board shall exercise such power include, but are not limited to, circumstances in which the person:
(1) Is guilty of fraud or deceit in the procurement or holding of the license;
(2) Has been convicted of a felony in a court of competent jurisdiction, either within or outside of this state, unless the conviction has been reversed and the holder of the license discharged or acquitted or if the holder has been pardoned with full restoration of civil rights, in which case the license shall be restored;
(3) Is or has been afflicted with any medical problem, disability or addiction that, in the opinion of the board, would impair professional competence;
(4) Has knowingly aided and abetted a person who is not a license holder or is not otherwise authorized pursuant to this chapter to perform the duties of a license holder under this chapter;
(5) Has undertaken or engaged in any practice beyond the scope of duties permitted a license holder under this chapter;
(6) Has impersonated a license holder or former license holder or is under an assumed name performing the duties authorized to be performed only by a licensed person;
(7) Has been found guilty of violations of a code of ethics, which the board shall establish by regulation;
(8) Is or has been found guilty of incompetence or negligence in performance as a license holder;
(9) Acts in a manner unprofessional, dishonorable or unethical or has been found guilty of unprofessional, dishonorable or unethical conduct;
(10) Violates, or attempts to violate, directly or indirectly, or assists or aids in the violation of, or conspires to violate, any provision of this chapter or any lawful order of the board issued pursuant to this chapter or any of the rules or regulations promulgated pursuant to this chapter, or any criminal statute of the state;
(11) Is habitually intoxicated or engages in personal misuse of any drugs or the use of intoxicating liquors, narcotics, controlled substances, controlled substance analogues or other drugs or stimulants in such manner as to adversely affect the person's ability to practice; or
(12) Has received disciplinary action from another state or territory of the United States that has licensed or certified the person to practice in that state for any acts or omissions that would constitute grounds for discipline of a person licensed in this state. A certified copy of the initial or final order, or other equivalent document memorializing the disciplinary action from the disciplining state or territory, shall constitute prima facie evidence of violation of this section and shall be sufficient grounds upon which to deny, restrict or condition licensure or renewal or to discipline a person licensed in this state.
(c) An action taken under this section shall be subject to the applicable provisions of the Fresh Start Act that are compiled in chapter 1, part 1 of this title.
(a) On and after January 1, 2008, no person shall practice orthotics, prosthetics or pedorthics in this state, or hold out as being able to practice either profession, or dispense an orthosis, prosthesis or pedorthic device, unless such person is licensed in accordance with the requirements of this part.
(b) Until January 1, 2008, a person certified by the American Board for Certification in Orthotics and Prosthetics, Inc., with the title of Certified Orthotist (CO), Certified Prosthetist (CP) or Certified Orthotist-Prosthetist (CPO), or by the Board for Orthotist/Prosthetist Certification with the title of Board of Orthotic Certification — Orthotist (BOCO) or Board of Certification — Prosthetist (BOCP), or holding similar certifications from other accrediting bodies with equivalent educational requirements and examination standards, may apply for and may be granted orthotic or prosthetic licensure under this part, upon payment of the required fee. After January 1, 2008, any applicant for initial licensure as an orthotist or a prosthetist shall meet the requirements of this part regarding license.
(c) Until January 1, 2008, a person certified as a Certified Pedorthist (CPED) by the Board of Certification in Pedorthics, Inc., or a person certified as a CO, CP or CPO by the American Board for Certification in Orthotics and Prosthetics, Inc., or certified as a BOCO or BOCP by the Board for Orthotist/Prosthetist Certification, or holding similar certifications from other accrediting bodies with equivalent educational requirements and examination standards, may apply for and may be granted pedorthic licensure under this part, upon payment of the required fee. After that date, any applicant for initial licensure as a pedorthist shall meet the requirements of this part regarding licensure.
(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of this part to the contrary, a person who has practiced full time for a minimum of the past five (5) years in a prosthetic/orthotic facility as an orthotist or prosthetist or in a pedorthic facility as a pedorthist may file an application with the board before January 1, 2007, in order to continue to practice orthotics, prosthetics or pedorthics and may be issued a license to practice orthotics, prosthetics or pedorthics under this part without examination, upon receipt by the division of payment of the licensing fee required and after the board has completed an investigation of the applicant's work history. The investigation may include, but is not limited to, completion by the applicant of a questionnaire regarding the applicant's work history and scope of practice.
A licensed orthotist, prosthetist or pedorthist may provide care or services only if the care or services are provided pursuant to an order from a licensed health care practitioner authorized to issue such an order.
(a) The scope of practice of a licensed orthotist, prosthetist or pedorthist shall not include the right to diagnose a medical problem or condition or the right to give medical advice as to the nature, cause or treatment for the problem or condition for which the orthotic, prosthetic or pedorthic device is being dispensed; however, the scope of practice of a licensed orthotist, prosthetist or pedorthist does include the right to provide information or demonstration regarding the proper use and care of the device and to make adjustments to the device as needed.
(b) No person shall dispense or sell an over-the-counter or off-the-shelf device based upon an image of the customer's limb captured by the person through a mold, cast, scanning device, digital appliance, or pressure sensitive device, unless the customer has first presented to that person a written prescription for that device from a health care practitioner authorized by law to write such a prescription.
(a) Nothing in this part or in the rules adopted by the board pursuant to this part shall be interpreted to limit or restrict a health care practitioner licensed under this title from engaging in the full scope of practice of such person's profession, training or services. Nothing in this part or in the rules adopted by the board pursuant to this part shall be interpreted or permitted to limit or restrict individuals acting under the supervision and control of a pharmacist or pharmacy licensed under this title or home medical equipment provider licensed under title 68 from measuring, fitting or adjusting any non-custom-fabricated and fitted device, including, but not limited to, over-the-counter or off-the-shelf devices, so long as such individual does not create a cast, mold or scan of a part of the human body for the purpose of constructing a medical device to treat a patient's medical condition and so long as such individual meets one (1) of the following criteria for such device:
(1) Documented training from a manufacturer or training from a licensed or certified orthotist, prosthetist or pedorthist;
(2) Certification or registration as a fitter of orthotic, prosthetic or pedorthic devices from a nationally recognized board or association such as the Board for Orthotist/Prosthetist Certification (BOC), the Board of Certification for Pedorthists, the National Community Pharmacists Association (NCPA) or the American Board for Certification in Orthotics and Prosthetics (ABC); or
(3) Direct supervision by a trained and experienced, or certified or registered, fitter of orthotic, prosthetic or pedorthic devices.
(b) Nothing in this part or in the rules adopted by the board pursuant to this part shall be interpreted or permitted to limit or restrict individuals acting under the supervision and control of a pharmacist or pharmacy licensed under this title or home medical equipment provider licensed under title 68 from measuring, fitting or adjusting any non-custom-fabricated and fitted pedorthic devices, including, but not limited to, diabetic shoes, so long as such individual meets the criteria of either subdivision (a)(2) or (a)(3) and so long as the individual does not create a cast, mold or scan of a part of the human body for the purpose of constructing a medical device to treat a patient's medical problem.
Nothing in this part shall be construed to restrict:
(1) The practice of orthotics, prosthetics or pedorthics by a person who is employed by the federal government or any bureau, division or agency of the federal government while in the discharge of the employee's official duties;
(2) The practice of orthotics, prosthetics or pedorthics by:
(A) A student enrolled in a school of orthotics, prosthetics or pedorthics;
(B) A resident continuing such resident's clinical education in a residency accredited by the National Commission on Orthotic and Prosthetic Education; provided, that such person has first registered as a resident with the board; or
(C) A student in a qualified work experience program or internship in pedorthics; or
(3) The measuring, fitting or adjusting of an orthotic device by an employee or authorized representative of an orthosis manufacturer registered with the federal food and drug administration, when such employee or representative is supervised by a licensed health care professional authorized by law to prescribe, measure or fit such device, and the measuring, fitting or adjusting of such device occurs in the office of such licensed health care professional or in a health care facility.
(a) Any person who practices in this state without having first complied with this part commits a Class C misdemeanor; provided, however, that, for a period of one (1) year after January 1, 2006, an offense under this section shall only result in a warning and such person shall have thirty (30) days to comply with this part.
(b) The board of registration in podiatry shall inform persons to be regulated by this part of the regulations to be imposed by this part.
(a) The board is authorized to petition any circuit or chancery court having jurisdiction over any person who is practicing without a license, or to whom a license has been denied or whose license has been suspended or revoked by action of the board to enjoin such person from continuing to practice within this state.
(b) Jurisdiction is conferred upon the circuit and chancery courts of this state to hear and determine all such causes and to exercise full and complete jurisdiction in such injunctive proceedings.
(a) The board may utilize one (1) or more screening panels in its investigative and disciplinary process, to assure that complaints filed and investigations conducted are meritorious and to act as a mechanism for resolution of complaints or diversion to professional peer review organizations or impaired professionals' associations or foundations of those cases that the board, through established guidelines, deems appropriate.
(b) The screening panel has the authority to administer oaths to witnesses.
(c) Members of a screening panel may be drawn from the membership of the board or may be appointed by the board. Nonboard members shall meet the requirements of membership on the board and may include a consumer member. A board member serving on a panel shall not participate in a contested case involving any matter heard by the panel.
(a) To assist in the implementation and administration of this part, the governor shall initially appoint to the board one (1) person who is eligible for licensure as an orthotist, or prosthetist or pedorthist.
(b) That person's term of office on the board shall be three (3) years. Upon expiration of that person's term, the governor shall appoint a person licensed under this part to fill this position on the board.
(c) A person may serve more than one (1) term in this position on the board.
(d) The governor may remove this member of the board from office for neglect of duties, malfeasance in office, incompetence or professional misconduct.
(e) The governor may fill a vacancy in this position upon the member's resignation or death.
(f) In making appointments to this position on the board, the governor shall consider persons recommended by the professional organization of orthotists, prosthetists and pedorthists in Tennessee.
(g) The person filling this position on the board shall receive the same per diem and reimbursement for travel and other necessary expenses that is received by other members of the board.
(h) The person filling this position shall have the right to vote on all matters considered by the board.
(1) As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise requires:
(A) “Diagnosis” means:
(i) The differential diagnosis of human ailments through examination and evaluation of patients and through diagnostic procedures necessary to clinically correlate a physical examination to a diagnostic impression;
(ii) The ordering of X-rays, advanced diagnostic imaging, and other diagnostic procedures;
(iii) The performance of X-rays and other non-invasive diagnostic procedures, as well as minimally invasive procedures for which the chiropractic physician has received training by an institution accredited by the Council on Chiropractic Education or its successor and which have been approved by the board of chiropractic examiners after consultation with the board of medical examiners; and
(iv) The collection of blood, urine, saliva, and hair for analysis; provided, however, venipuncture shall only be done by a phlebotomist or other person who is properly trained to draw blood;
(B) “Differential diagnosis” means the examination of body systems and structures of a patient to determine the source, nature, and extent of a disease or other physical condition for the purpose of establishing an appropriate plan of care for the patient, which may include referral to another provider for care that is outside the scope of practice of a chiropractic physician;
(C) “Practice of chiropractic” means the diagnosis and treatment of patients, as defined in subdivisions (a)(1)(B) and (a)(1)(D); and
(D) “Treatment” means:
(i) The treatment of neuromuscular, musculoskeletal, and related conditions through the use of chiropractic adjustment and manipulation; physical agent modalities; manual, rehabilitative, and other therapeutic care; and mechanical, chemical, electrical, and thermal methods;
(ii) The use of acupuncture by a chiropractic physician who has completed two hundred fifty (250) hours of an accredited acupuncture course and has passed the National Board of Chiropractic Examiners Acupuncture Exam;
(iii) The location and removal of interference with nerve transmission and nerve function;
(iv) The making of appropriate referrals to other healthcare professionals for conditions that are outside the scope of practice of a chiropractic physician;
(v) The ordering of durable medical equipment for patients who need such equipment to assist in the restoration of their health under the plan of care for treatment of their neuromuscular, musculoskeletal, and related conditions; and
(vi) The provision of supportive care with due regard for nutrition, hygiene, sanitation, and rehabilitation designed to assist in the restoration and maintenance of a patient's health.
(2) Nothing in this chapter authorizes a chiropractic physician to engage in the practice of medicine and surgery or osteopathy, as defined in chapters 6 and 9 of this title, or to prescribe legend drugs or controlled substances.
(b) As used in this chapter, “chiropractic physician” means a person who is a graduate of a chiropractic college accredited by the Council on Chiropractic Education or its successor, or is a graduate of an international chiropractic college approved by the board of chiropractic examiners, and who has received a license issued by the board of chiropractic examiners.
(c)
(1) No person licensed under this title may perform a spinal manipulation or spinal adjustment without first having the legal authority to differentially diagnose and having received a minimum of four hundred (400) hours of classroom instruction in spinal manipulation or spinal adjustment and a minimum of eight hundred (800) hours of supervised clinical training at a facility where spinal manipulation or spinal adjustment is a primary method of treatment. “Spinal manipulation” and “spinal adjustment” are interchangeable terms that identify a method of skillful and beneficial treatment where a person uses direct thrust to move a joint of the patient's spine beyond its normal range of motion, but without exceeding the limits of anatomical integrity. A violation of this section is an unlawful practice of chiropractic and is grounds for the offending health care provider's licensing board to suspend, revoke or refuse to renew such provider's license or take other disciplinary action allowed by law.
(2) Nothing in this subsection (c) shall in any way apply to the scope of practice of:
(A) An osteopathic physician licensed under chapter 9 of this title; or
(B) Any person who practices medicine or surgery who is licensed under chapter 6 of this title.
(a) There shall be a board of chiropractic examiners, referred to as “board” in this chapter, consisting of five (5) chiropractic physicians, residents in Tennessee who have been actively engaged in the practice of their profession in Tennessee for a period of at least five (5) years, one (1) member who is a chiropractic X-ray technician or chiropractic therapy assistant and who has been certified in this state for not less than two (2) years, and one (1) consumer member who is not affiliated with the practice of chiropractic. The members of the board shall be appointed by the governor and shall hold office for a term of five (5) years commencing on May 1 and expiring on April 30, five (5) years thereafter.
(b) All vacancies occurring on the board by reason of death or resignation shall be filled by the governor for the unexpired term.
(c) In making appointments to the board, the governor shall strive to ensure that at least one (1) person serving on the board is sixty (60) years of age or older and that at least one (1) person serving on the board is a member of a racial minority.
(d) In order to stagger the terms of office, for the year 2000 the governor shall appoint the board members for transition terms in the following manner:
(1) One (1) chiropractic physician and one (1) consumer member for one (1) year with the term to expire on April 30, 2001;
(2) One (1) chiropractic physician for a two-year term to expire on April 30, 2002;
(3) One (1) chiropractic physician for a three-year term to expire on April 30, 2003;
(4) One (1) chiropractic physician and one (1) consumer member for a four-year term to expire April 30, 2004; and
(5) One (1) chiropractic physician for a five-year term to expire April 30, 2005.
(e) Any person appointed shall be eligible for successive appointments, in the discretion of the governor, and all members shall hold office until the appointment of their successors.
(f) No chiropractor shall be eligible for appointment unless such chiropractor is actively engaged in the practice of the profession of chiropractic within this state.
(g) Further, no persons shall be eligible for appointment on the board who at the time are actively engaged in the practice, or holding themselves out as practitioners, of any other branch of the healing arts.
(h) The governor has the discretion to seek recommendations and nominations from the Tennessee Chiropractic Association in making appointments to the board.
(i) The board is authorized to annually elect from among its members a president, vice president and secretary and to create such officers it deems necessary for its efficient operations. Four (4) members of the board shall constitute a quorum, and a majority of those present shall be necessary to pass or reject any official business.
(j) The board shall be provided administrative support by the division of health related boards, referred to as the “division” in this chapter.
(1) Examine applicants and have licenses issued to practice chiropractic to all applicants who have successfully passed the examination approved by the board or whose applications for license by reciprocity have been acted upon favorably by the board;
(2) Conduct hearings to revoke or suspend any license or certificate under the authority of this or any previous laws authorizing the holder thereof to practice chiropractic for violations by the licensee of any of the provisions of this chapter; and
(3) Sponsor, conduct or approve such educational programs as are necessary to carry out and make effective this chapter.
(a) All fees and moneys from whatever source coming into the hands of the board shall be paid by the board to the state treasurer and become a part of the general fund.
(b) The commissioner of finance and administration shall make allotments out of the general fund for the proper expenditures of the board, and no expenditure may be made by the board until the allotment for the expenditure has been made by the commissioner. The allotments for the operation of the board shall be disbursed under the general budgetary laws of the state.
(c) Each member of the board shall receive one hundred dollars ($100) per diem when actually engaged in the discharge of that member's official duties and, in addition, be reimbursed for all travel and other necessary expenses. The secretary of the board shall, in lieu of the per diem provided by this section, receive a salary not to exceed one hundred dollars ($100) per month as set annually by the board. All reimbursement for travel expenses shall be in accordance with the comprehensive travel regulations as promulgated by the department of finance and administration and approved by the attorney general and reporter.
The board is authorized to adopt such rules and regulations as are necessary to carry out and enforce this chapter and that are consistent with this chapter. Rules and regulations of the board shall be subject to the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5.
Any person of good moral character is eligible for licensure, if that person:
(1) Is a graduate of a chiropractic college having status with the commission on accreditation of the Council on Chiropractic Education, or its successor, or graduated from an international chiropractic college approved by the board;
(2) Has attended a chiropractic college for four (4) school years of not less than nine (9) months each; and
(3) Submits to the board proof of additional parachiropractic education as follows:
(A) For applicants matriculating in a chiropractic college prior to year 2000, the applicant must provide a transcript of grades showing a minimum of two (2) full academic years of college or university work of at least sixty (60) semester hours or its equivalent from an accredited institution; or
(B) For applicants matriculating in a chiropractic college in year 2000 and beyond, proof that a bachelor's level education or its equivalent has been obtained from an accredited college or university.
(a) Application for licensure shall be made to the board in writing or via online application.
(b) The application shall be accompanied by the applicant's photograph and shall state the name, age, sex and place of residence of the applicant, the name and location of the school or college from which the applicant was graduated, the length of time devoted to the study of chiropractics and the date of graduation.
(c) All applications shall be signed and sworn to by the applicant.
(d)
(1) When the board receives a completed application for initial licensure from an applicant, then the board shall, within sixty (60) days from the date the board receives the completed application:
(A) Render a decision on the application; or
(B) Inform the applicant of the need to appear before the board.
(2) As used in this subsection (d), “completed application” means an application that satisfies all statutory and board rule requirements.
The examination of applicants for a license to practice chiropractic will consist of the national board examination as directed by the board. Each applicant must successfully pass all examinations before receiving a license to practice.
(a) Applicants possessing a valid unrestricted license to practice chiropractic in another state or other regulated jurisdiction for a period of two (2) full years are not required to be examined pursuant to § 63-4-110 and may obtain a license by fulfilling the following:
(1) Providing documentation from the state or jurisdiction of prior practice attesting to the length of time in practice, together with any disciplinary action taken against the licensee while in practice;
(2) Passing the Special Purposes Examination for Chiropractors (SPEC) by the national board or its successor; and
(3) Fulfilling all other requirements of this chapter.
(b)
(1) When the board receives a completed application for licensure from an applicant who is licensed in another state or territory of the United States or in the District of Columbia, then the board shall, within sixty (60) days from the date the board receives the completed application:
(A) Render a decision on the application; or
(B) Inform the applicant of the need to appear before the board.
(2) As used in this subsection (b), “completed application” means an application that satisfies all statutory and board rule requirements.
(a) Each licensed practitioner of chiropractic shall register the practitioner's license and renew the practitioner's certificate of registration as provided in §§ 63-1-107 and 63-1-108.
(b) In addition, every licensed chiropractor shall apply to the board for a renewal of the licensed chiropractor's certificate of fitness and pay a renewal fee as set annually by the board. Each application shall be made on a form to be furnished by the board.
(c)
(1) The board shall renew such licensee's certificate of fitness upon application made in due form and upon payment of all required fees.
(2)
(A) When requested, licensees shall provide the board satisfactory proof of the licensee's attendance at a chiropractic education program or programs conducted by either the American Chiropractic Association, the International Chiropractors Association, the Tennessee Chiropractic Association, or any other educational program approved or conducted by the board which consists of the minimum number of hours established hereunder for the period beginning the preceding January 1. Prior approval of such a course may be obtained by submitting the following information to the board's administrative office at least thirty (30) days prior to the scheduled date of the course:
(i) A course description or outline;
(ii) Names of all lecturers;
(iii) Brief resume of all lecturers;
(iv) Number of hours of educational credit requested;
(v) Date of course;
(vi) Copies of materials to be utilized in the course; and
(vii) How verification of attendance is to be documented.
(B) Each chiropractic physician must retain independent documentation of continuing education hours attained for a period of four (4) years from the end of the calendar year in which the training is received. Such proof must be produced for inspection and verification, if requested in writing by the board during its verification process.
(3) The minimum number of hours of required continuing education shall be at least twelve (12) hours in any calendar year.
(4) The board may, in its sole discretion, waive the annual education requirement in cases of retirement, certified illness, disability or other undue hardships.
(d)
(1) When any such licensee fails to renew the licensee's certificate of fitness and pay the annual renewal fee within sixty (60) days after renewal becomes due as provided in this section and/or fails to meet the annual education requirements of this section, the license of such person shall be automatically revoked at the expiration of sixty (60) days after the renewal was required, without further notice or hearing.
(2) Any person whose license is automatically revoked as provided in this subsection (d) may make application in writing to the board for the reinstatement of such license, and, upon good cause being shown, the board, in its discretion, may reinstate such license upon the payment of all past due fees and the payment of fifty dollars ($50.00) and upon further conditions as the board may require.
(e) Any person licensed to practice by this chapter who has retired or may hereafter retire from such practice in this state shall not be made to register as required by this chapter if such person files with this board an affidavit on a form to be furnished by the board, which affidavit shall state the date on which such person retired from such practice and such other facts as shall tend to verify such retirement as the board shall deem necessary. If such person thereafter desires to reengage in such practice in this state, such person shall apply for reinstatement with the board on a form provided by the board, provide proof of continuing education as established by the board and shall meet other requirements as may be set by the board.
(a) Chiropractic practitioners shall observe and be subject to all state and municipal regulations relating to the control of contagious and infectious diseases and any and all matters pertaining to public health, reporting to proper health officers the same as other practitioners.
(b) Nothing in this chapter shall permit any chiropractor to make or execute a birth certificate.
(a) The board has the duty and authority to suspend for a specified time, within the discretion of the board, or to revoke any license to practice chiropractic, or to otherwise discipline any licensee or refuse to grant any certificate of fitness, whenever the licensee or applicant is found guilty of any of the following acts or offenses:
(1) Fraud in procuring a license or certificate;
(2) Conviction of a felony for violations of any law of the state or of the United States;
(3) Habitual intoxication or personal misuse of any drugs or the use of intoxicating liquors, narcotics, controlled substances, controlled substance analogues or other drugs or stimulants in such manner as to adversely affect the person's ability to practice chiropractic;
(4) Immoral, unethical, unprofessional or dishonorable conduct;
(5)
(A) In-person solicitation, telemarketing, or telephonic solicitation by licensees, employees of licensees, agents of licensees, or independent contractors of licensees to victims of an accident or disaster, unless it is a victim with whom a licensee has a family or prior professional relationship, shall be considered unethical if carried out within thirty (30) days of the accident or disaster;
(B) Telemarketing transcripts shall be maintained for a period of two (2) years following their utilization;
(C) A log of contacts shall be maintained for a period of two (2) years following a telemarketing encounter; and
(D) This subdivision (5) shall not prohibit solicitation by targeted direct mail advertising or other forms of written, radio, or television advertising; provided, that the advertising does not involve coercion, duress, or harassment and is not false, deceptive, or misleading;
(6) Division of fees or agreeing to split or divide fees received for professional services with any person for bringing or referring a patient;
(7) Professional connection or association with any person, firm or corporation in any manner in an effort to avoid and circumvent this chapter or lending one's name to another for the illegal practice of chiropractic by such person;
(8) Rebating or offering to rebate to an insured any payment by the insured's third-party payor to the licensee for services or treatments rendered under the insured's policy;
(9) Submitting to any third-party payor a claim for a service or treatment at an inflated fee or charge or a greater fee or charge than the usual fee the licensee charges for that service or treatment when the service or treatment is rendered without third-party reimbursement;
(10) Submitting to any third-party payor a claim for a service or treatment at a fee or charge in an amount greater than that advertised for such service or treatment at the time of the rendering of the service or treatment that is the subject matter of the claim;
(11) Knowingly or purposefully incorrectly reporting services rendered, reporting incorrect treatment dates or reporting charges for services not rendered for the purpose of obtaining payment from a third-party payor;
(12) Any other unprofessional or unethical conduct that may be specified by the board from time to time by means of rules and regulations duly published and promulgated by the board or the violation of any provision of this chapter;
(13) The advertising of chiropractic business in which untrue or misleading statements are made or causing the publication or circulation of fraudulent advertising relative to any disease, human ailment or condition;
(14) Invasion of a field of practice in which the licensee is not licensed to practice or is not within the limits of the licensee's respective callings as determined by the board;
(15) Gross health care liability or a pattern of continued or repeated health care liability, ignorance, negligence or incompetence in the course of chiropractic practice; and
(16) Making false, fraudulent, misleading, extravagant or grossly improbable claims or statements as to the efficacy or value of the science or practice of chiropractic.
(b) An action taken under this section shall be subject to the applicable provisions of the Fresh Start Act that are compiled in chapter 1, part 1 of this title.
(a) In enforcing this section, the board shall, upon probable cause, have the authority to compel an applicant or licensee or certificate holder to submit to a mental and/or physical examination, by a designated committee of at least three (3) practicing physicians, including a psychiatrist where a question of mental condition is involved. The applicant or licensee or certificate holder may have an independent physical or mental examination, which examination report shall be filed with the board for consideration. The committee will submit a report of its findings to the board for use in any hearing that may thereafter ensue.
(b) The board, on its own motion, may investigate any report indicating that a chiropractor is or may be in violation of this chapter. Any chiropractor, any chiropractic society or association or any other person who in good faith shall report to the board any information that a chiropractor is or may be in violation of any provisions of this chapter shall not be subject to suit for civil damages as a result thereof.
(c) All proceedings by the board to deny a certificate of fitness, to revoke or suspend any certificate of fitness or license or to otherwise discipline a licensee shall be subject to and conducted in accordance with the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5.
(d) An elected officer of the board and a hearing officer, arbitrator or mediator, if any, has the authority to administer oaths to witnesses and, upon probable cause being established, issue subpoenas for the attendance of witnesses and the production of documents and records.
(e) The board may utilize one (1) or more screening panels in its investigative and disciplinary process to assure that complaints filed and investigations conducted are meritorious and to act as a mechanism for diversion to professional peer review organizations and/or impaired professionals, associations or foundations those cases that the board, through established guidelines, deems appropriate. Upon diversion, such entities shall retain the same immunity as provided by law for the board.
(f) The screening panels shall consist of as many members as the board directs, but shall include at least one (1) but no more than three (3) licensed chiropractors, who may be members of the board or may serve either voluntarily or through employment by or under contract with the board.
(g) The activities of the screening panels and any mediation or arbitration sessions shall not be construed as meetings of an agency for purposes of the open meetings laws, compiled in title 8, chapter 44, and shall remain confidential. The members of the screening panels, mediators and arbitrators have a deliberative privilege and the same immunity as provided by law for the board and are not subject to deposition or subpoena to testify regarding any matter or issues raised in any contested case, criminal prosecution or civil lawsuit that may result from or be incident to cases processed before them.
(h) Notwithstanding any provision of the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act to the contrary, hearing officers are authorized to and may hear board mediation, arbitration or disciplinary contested cases, but may not issue final orders in contested case matters. Notwithstanding any of §§ 4-5-314 and 4-5-315, that may be or are inconsistent, such hearing officers may only issue findings of fact and conclusions of law, which shall be referred directly to the board or a duly constituted panel thereof for final action. The board or duly constituted panel, after hearing testimony or arguments from both parties regarding the appropriate disciplinary action and, if allowed by the board, arguments on any controversy raised by the hearing officer's or designee's order, shall issue a final order to include the imposition of what, if any, disciplinary action is deemed appropriate. Only the board or a duly constituted panel thereof shall have the authority to issue final orders that dispose of a pending contested case, regardless of whether the issues resulting in the dispositive action are procedural, substantive, factual or legal. If a hearing officer is not available when a contested case, or any motion filed therein requiring action, is ready and scheduled to be heard or fails to timely prepare findings and conclusions pursuant to board established guidelines, the board or a duly constituted panel thereof may rule on the motions and/or hear the contested case or utilize the record compiled before the hearing officers and prepare its own findings of fact, conclusions of law and then issue a final order. With regard to findings or conclusions issued by the hearing officer or any mediator or arbitrator, the board or any duly constituted panel thereof that reviews the case may do any of the following:
(1) Adopt the hearing officer's, mediator's or arbitrator's findings of fact and conclusions of law, in whole or in part;
(2) Make its own findings of fact and conclusions of law, based solely on the record and the expertise of the members of the board or panel, in addition to or in substitution of those made by the hearing officer, mediator or arbitrator;
(3) Remand the matter back to the hearing officer, mediator or arbitrator for action consistent with the board or panel findings and conclusions in the matter; or
(4) Reverse the hearing officer's, mediator's or arbitrator's findings and/or dismiss the matter entirely.
(i) The board retains jurisdiction to modify or refuse to modify, upon request of any party, any of its orders issued pursuant to this section in compliance with procedures established by the board. The board, pursuant to duly promulgated rules, may, whenever a final order is issued after a disciplinary contested case hearing that contains findings that a licensee or other person has violated any provision of this chapter, assess the costs directly related to the prosecution of the case against the licensee or person.
(j) Any elected officer of the board, or any duly appointed or elected chair or any panel of the board or any screening panel and any hearing officer, arbitrator or mediator has the authority to administer oaths to witnesses and, upon probable cause being established, issue subpoenas for the attendance of witnesses and the production of documents and records.
(1) The board, in addition to the powers and duties expressly granted by this chapter in the matter of suspension or revocation of a license and in the matter of the refusal to issue a certificate, is authorized and empowered to petition any circuit or chancery court having jurisdiction to enjoin any person who is practicing or attempting to practice chiropractic without possessing a valid license to so practice and to enjoin any person, firm or corporation from performing any act or rendering any service that constitutes the practice of chiropractic as defined by this chapter.
(2) No injunction bond shall be required of the board.
(3) Jurisdiction is conferred upon the circuit and chancery courts of the state to hear and determine such cases as chancery causes and to exercise full and complete jurisdiction in such injunctive proceedings.
(b) The board is also authorized and empowered to petition any circuit or chancery court having jurisdiction to enjoin any person who is violating § 63-4-114(a)(5). No injunction bond shall be required of the board in such proceedings, and jurisdiction is conferred upon the circuit and chancery courts of this state to hear such cases.
(a) Any person who violates any provision of this chapter commits a Class B misdemeanor.
(b) Any person who has been enjoined by a court of competent jurisdiction from performing any acts or rendering any services that constitute the practice of chiropractic, who thereafter willfully violates the terms of the injunction by again performing such acts or rendering such services commits a Class E felony.
Any chiropractor who serves on any peer review committee or on any other committee, board, commission or other entity constituted by any statewide chiropractic association, local chiropractic society or governmental or quasi-governmental agency for the purpose of reviewing and evaluating chiropractic acts of other chiropractors or chiropractic auxiliary personnel, shall be immune from liability with respect to any action taken by that chiropractor in good faith and without malice as a member of such committee, board, commission or other entity.
(1) The board shall adopt rules and regulations that shall establish minimum educational standards and criteria for persons operating X-ray equipment for diagnostic purposes in chiropractic physicians' offices.
(2) These regulations may include, but are not limited to, provisions for grandfathering, waiver, reciprocity, renewal, continuing education, fees, examination and hardship cases.
(b) No person shall perform X-ray procedures in a chiropractic physician's office who does not meet these standards and who has not received a certificate of proficiency from the board.
(a) The board may issue an externship certificate to practice chiropractic, to be used only under supervision of a licensed chiropractor, upon payment of a fee as set by the board, to a chiropractor who meets all qualifications and requirements for licensure pursuant to this chapter and who has applied to take the examinations as provided in § 63-4-110.
(b) Externs will be allowed to perform all diagnostic tests and therapeutic interventions as allowed providers licensed by this chapter.
(c) Externship is to last no longer than three hundred sixty-five (365) days from date of certificate issuance. Applicants who provide proof of illness or hardship that hindered their ability to comply with § 63-4-110 may, at the board's discretion, be allowed a second year of externship.
(d) The board may revoke an extern's certificate for violation of any portion of this chapter for failure to maintain proper supervision. “Supervision” is defined as direct oversight by a Tennessee licensed chiropractor. The supervisor shall be on the facility premises while the extern is conducting patient care.
(e) The board reserves the right to adopt any rules and regulations as the board may deem appropriate for externs and the administration of externship program.
(f) One hundred dollars ($100) shall be the administrative fee for applying to and participating in the externship program for each year of externship.
(a) The board will allow the chiropractic preceptor program (CPP) to function in the state so long as the preceptor and the intern meet the qualifications as specified by the chiropractic preceptor program advisory committee, or its equivalent; and provided, all guidelines of the committee are followed.
(b) The board reserves the right to adopt any rules and regulations as the board may deem appropriate for the administration of this program.
(a) The board shall adopt rules and regulations to regulate the nature, manner, content and extent of advertising by practitioners who are under the jurisdiction of such board.
(b) Any licensed chiropractor who advertises or announces to the public that the licensed chiropractor is a certified acupuncturist shall be deemed to have engaged in false, misleading or deceptive advertising.
(1) The board shall adopt rules that establish minimum educational standards and criteria for chiropractic therapy assistants performing physical agent modalities, physical treatment, and clinical services that are within the scope of practice of a chiropractic physician and, under the supervision of a chiropractic physician, either in the office of the chiropractic physician or in the presence of the chiropractic physician at another location.
(2) These regulations shall include, but not be limited to, provisions for grandfathering, waiver, reciprocity, renewal, continuing education, fees, examination and hardship cases.
(b) No person shall perform therapeutic procedures in a chiropractic physician's office who does not meet these standards and who has not received a certificate of proficiency from the board.
A chiropractor licensed pursuant to this chapter under a special volunteer license who is a medical practitioner, as defined by § 63-1-201, engaged in practice at a free health clinic shall not be subject to license fees under this chapter. The board of chiropractic examiners may issue a special volunteer license, as such license is defined in § 63-1-201, to qualified applicants without fee or charge. Such license shall be for a period of two (2) years and may be renewed on a biennial basis.
(a) The practice of dentistry and of dental hygiene shall be under the direct supervision of a board to be known as the board of dentistry, referred to in this chapter as the “board.”
(b) The administrative duties pursuant to licensure and the collection of fees for licensure shall be vested in the division of health related boards of the department of health, referred to in this chapter as the “division.”
The board shall consist of seven (7) practicing dentists, two (2) practicing dental hygienists and one (1) practicing registered dental assistant, whose duty it is to carry out this chapter. Of the seven (7) dentists, two (2) shall be appointed from each grand division of the state, and the appointment of the other dentists shall alternate among the grand divisions on an equal basis, but without regard to consecutive terms of a board member.
(1) The dentist members of the board may be appointed by the governor from lists of qualified nominees submitted by interested dentist groups including, but not limited to, the Tennessee Dental Association. No person is eligible for appointment as a dentist member of the board unless such person has been an actual and bona fide resident and a legally licensed practicing dentist of this state for a period of five (5) years or more immediately preceding such appointment.
(2) The dental hygienist members may be appointed by the governor from lists of qualified nominees submitted by interested dental hygienist groups including, but not limited to, the Tennessee Dental Hygienists Association. No person is eligible for appointment as a dental hygienist member of the board unless that person has been an actual and bona fide resident and a legally licensed practicing dental hygienist of this state for a period of five (5) years or more immediately preceding such appointment.
(3) The dental assistant member may be appointed by the governor from lists of qualified nominees submitted by interested dental assistant groups including, but not limited to, the Tennessee Dental Assistants' Association. No person is eligible for appointment as a dental assistant member of the board unless that person has been an actual and bona fide resident and has been a legally registered and practicing dental assistant of this state for a period of five (5) years or more immediately preceding such appointment.
(b) The governor shall consult with interested dental groups, including, but not limited to, the Tennessee Dental Association, the Tennessee Dental Hygienists Association and the Tennessee Dental Assistants' Association to determine qualified persons to fill the positions as provided in subsection (a).
(c) The terms of members of the board are three (3) years, with the terms staggered so that the terms of no more than three (3) members expire each year. No member is eligible to serve on the board for more than three (3) consecutive full terms, but any person thus ineligible shall thereafter be eligible for nomination and appointment to the board, as provided in this section, after three (3) years have elapsed since that person's previous service on the board.
(d)
(1) The governor shall make appointments to the board not later than one (1) month after the expiration of the term of office of any member, and such or further delay in the appointment must be deducted from the term of the appointment. The governor shall fill vacancies occurring on the board by death or resignation for the unexpired term from lists submitted to the governor as provided in this section. If the vacancy is not filled within thirty (30) days by the governor, then the board shall fill the vacancy for the unexpired term. A person is not eligible for appointment to the board if the person is employed by or with a dental supply business or dental laboratory.
(2) In making appointments to the board, the governor shall strive to ensure that at least one (1) person serving on the board is sixty (60) years of age or older and that at least one (1) person serving on the board is a member of a racial minority.
(e) Members of the board shall continue in office until the expiration of the terms for which they were respectively appointed and until such time as their successors have been duly appointed.
(f)
(1) A member of the board may be removed upon one (1) or more of the following grounds:
(A) The refusal or inability for any reason of a board member to perform that member's duties as a member of the board in an efficient, responsible and professional manner;
(B) The misuse of office by a member of the board to obtain personal, pecuniary or material gain or advantage for that member or another through such office; or
(C) The violation of this chapter or of any of the rules and regulations of the board hereafter properly promulgated.
(2) The proceedings for such removal shall be in accordance with title 8, chapter 47.
(1) The board shall meet at least annually and at such times and places as it may deem necessary for the proper discharge of its duties.
(2) At its annual meeting the board shall elect from its membership a president, vice president and secretary-treasurer.
(3) A majority of the members shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business.
(4) The proceedings of the board shall be recorded and shall constitute a public record.
(b) The board shall maintain and make available to the division a permanent record that shall list the name, address and license or certificate number of all persons licensed to practice dentistry and of all persons certified as dental specialists, licensed as dental hygienists and registered as dental assistants.
(c) The board shall mail a copy of the law regulating the practice of dentistry to each person who is hereafter licensed to practice dentistry or dental hygiene.
The board has the following powers and duties in addition to the powers and duties granted to or imposed upon it by the other sections of this chapter:
(1) Prescribe rules and regulations for examination of candidates;
(2) Conduct examinations to ascertain the qualifications and fitness of applicants for licenses to practice dentistry and of applicants for certificates to practice a specialty in dentistry or licenses to practice as a dental hygienist or registered as a dental assistant;
(3) Provide standards by which dental schools and colleges, graduate dental programs in hospital settings, schools of dental hygiene and courses of instruction for dental assistants are approved;
(4) Issue licenses to applicants who successfully pass the examination for the practice of dentistry and dental hygiene, to issue certificates to specialists in dentistry who successfully pass the respective examinations for such certificates and to register dental assistants who meet such standards of competency as the board may require by rules and regulations and who pay a nonrefundable application fee as set annually by the board;
(5) Conduct hearings to revoke, suspend or otherwise lawfully discipline the holder of any license or certificate issued under the authority of this chapter or any previous laws authorizing the holder thereof to practice dentistry, a specialty in dentistry, dental hygiene or as a certified and/or registered dental assistant for violations by the licensee or certificate holder of any of the provisions of this chapter or any rule of the board hereafter properly promulgated by the board;
(6) Provide for any evaluations, including onsite, of facilities, equipment and personnel of dentists who use general anesthesia, deep sedation or conscious sedation as the board determines appropriate in the interest of public safety; and
(7) To make such rules and regulations and establish such fees as are necessary to carry out and make effective this chapter.
(a) It is unlawful for any person to practice dentistry, a specialty in dentistry or dental hygiene in this state, except those who are now licensed or certified as such pursuant to law and those who may hereafter be licensed or certified and registered pursuant to this chapter.
(b) It is unlawful for any person so licensed or certified to practice dentistry or to practice dental hygiene in any calendar year unless or until such person has paid the annual renewal fee for that year as provided in this chapter.
(c)
(1)
(A) Each person licensed as a dentist or a dental hygienist in accordance with this chapter or registered as a dental assistant pursuant to the rules of the board is required to attend and complete each year, except in the year of initial licensure or registration, the number of hours of board approved continuing education courses prescribed by the board, subject to a minimum of twelve (12) and a maximum of thirty (30) clock hours; provided, that beginning January 3, 2003, in lieu of the annual continuing education requirement, each person licensed as a dentist or dental hygienist or registered as a dental assistant is required to attend and complete during each two-year cycle, except for the two-year cycle of initial licensure, the number of hours of board approved continuing education courses that are prescribed by the board, subject to a minimum of twenty-four (24) and a maximum of sixty (60) clock hours. However, for the purposes of the biennial continuing education requirement for dental hygienists, no more than fifty percent (50%) of such continuing education requirement may be earned from on-line or web-based courses. Sponsors of such courses shall submit a sufficient description of course content to the board in order to obtain approval. The board may approve all, part or none of the course at its discretion. Additional procedures for implementing this requirement may be adopted by the board in its regulations. The board may waive all or part of the continuing education requirements in unusual situations in which an applicant for renewal has demonstrated inability to attend such courses not attributable to fault of the applicant. The board shall have discretion to require completion of continuing education courses of a type and number of hours satisfactory to the board in cases involving license renewal of dentists or dental hygienists who have not actively practiced or have been retired from practice for more than two (2) years. In addition to the foregoing, all applicants shall provide proof of current CPR certification by an organization approved by the board unless such requirement is waived by the board in its discretion; provided, that no dentist who obtains a waiver from the board for CPR requirements shall practice dentistry unless a dentist, dental hygienist or dental assistant who is currently certified in CPR is present.
(B)
(i) For purposes of this subdivision (c)(1), a live, interactive webinar is:
(a) Considered to be in-person continuing education; and
(b) Not considered remote attendance of an online or web-based course.
(ii) As used in this subdivision (c)(1)(B), “live, interactive webinar” means an internet-based broadcast in which viewers may interact with a presenter in real time.
(2) The board may, but is not required to, monitor or verify certificates of completion submitted by applicants for license renewal. In its discretion, by random sample or in individual cases, the board may require proof of attendance or otherwise investigate compliance with this subsection (c).
(a) Dentistry is defined as the evaluation, diagnosis, prevention and/or treatment, by nonsurgical, surgical or related procedures, of diseases, disorders and/or conditions of the oral cavity, maxillofacial area and/or the adjacent and associated structures and their impact on the human body, provided by a dentist within the scope of such dentist's education, training, and experience, in accordance with the ethics of the profession and applicable law.
(b) Any person is deemed to be practicing dentistry who, either gratuitously or for a salary, fee, money or other remuneration, paid or to be paid, directly to the operator or to any person or agency:
(1) Diagnoses, prescribes for or treats any disease, pain, deformity, deficiency, injury, disorder and condition of the oral cavity, maxillofacial area and the adjacent and associated structures and their impact on the human body. Such diagnosis and treatment may include the use of a complete or limited physical evaluation of patients by a board eligible or board certified oral and maxillofacial surgeon or a resident in an approved oral and maxillofacial surgery program practicing in a hospital setting;
(2) Extracts human teeth;
(3) Repairs or fills cavities in human teeth;
(4) Corrects malformations of human teeth or of the jaws;
(5) Performs any oral and maxillofacial surgery;
(6) Subject to subsection (d), takes an impression of the human tooth, teeth or jaws, leading to either:
(A) The fabrication of a model upon which will be constructed a replacement of natural teeth by artificial substitutes; or
(B) The fabrication of a cosmetic metal apparatus to be worn in the human mouth, whether or not the apparatus features silver, gold or platinum caps, jeweled inlays or any other cosmetic features;
(7) Furnishes, supplies, constructs, alters, reproduces or repairs any prosthetic denture, bridge, crown, appliance or any other structure to be used or worn in the human mouth as a substitute for natural teeth, except on the written work order of a licensed and registered dentist;
(8) Places or adjusts such appliance or structure in the human mouth;
(9) Delivers the same to any person other than the licensed and registered dentist upon whose written work order the work was performed;
(10) Offers to the public by any method to furnish, supply, construct, reproduce, reline, repair or otherwise process any prosthetic denture, bridge, appliance or other structure to be worn in the human mouth;
(11) Gives interpretations of dental radiographs;
(12) Administers an anesthetic, except for a topical anesthetic in connection with a dental operation; provided, however, that a duly licensed dentist may delegate the administration of local anesthetic to dental hygienists who possess a permit to do so issued by the board. The board shall establish the qualifications, criteria and curricula required for issuance of permits to administer local anesthetic, by infiltration or by block, to duly licensed dental hygienists;
(13) Uses the words, “Dentist,” “Dental Surgeon,” “Oral Surgeon,” “Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeon,” or letters “D.D.S.,” “D.M.D.,” or any other words, letters, title, or descriptive matter that in any way represents the person as being able to diagnose, treat, prescribe or operate for any disease, pain, deformity, deficiency, injury, disorder, and condition of the oral cavity, maxillofacial area and the adjacent and associated structures and their impact on the human body;
(14) States, or permits to be stated by any means or method whatsoever, that the person can or will attempt to perform dental operations or services or to render diagnosis in connection therewith;
(15) Is the operator of a place where dental operations or dental services are performed; or
(16) Authorizes the practice of “teledentistry” which, as used in this section, means the delivery of dental health care and patient consultation through the use of telehealth systems and technologies, including live, two-way interactions between a patient and a dentist licensed in this state using audiovisual telecommunications technology, or the secure transmission of electronic health records and medical data to a dentist licensed in this state to facilitate evaluation and treatment of the patient outside of a real-time or in-person interaction. Dentists who are licensed in this state and who deliver services using teledentistry shall establish protocols for the practice that should include proper methods of keeping the patient fully informed; proper safeguards ensuring that all state and federal laws and regulations relative to the privacy of health information are followed; proper documentation of all services or treatment rendered via teledentistry; proper procedures to ensure the referral of those patients requiring treatment beyond what can be provided via teledentistry to a dentist licensed in this state; and any such requirements as prescribed by the board of dentistry. Any and all services provided via teledentistry shall be consistent with the in-person provision of those services. Any and all services provided via teledentistry shall comply with this chapter and shall be provided in accordance with the rules of the board of dentistry.
(c)
(1) A dental hygienist is an individual who has graduated from a dental hygiene program accredited by the American Dental Association's Commission on Dental Accreditation (CODA) and is licensed under this chapter to practice dental hygiene.
(2) The practice of dental hygiene means the performance of preventive, educational, and therapeutic services including the removal of all hard and soft deposits and the stain from the human teeth to the depth of the gingival sulcus, polishing natural and restored surfaces of teeth, performing clinical examination of teeth and surrounding tissues for diagnosis by the dentist, and performing other procedures that may be delegated by the dentist, under the supervision of a licensed dentist.
(3) No person shall practice dental hygiene in a manner that is separate or independent from a supervising dentist, or establish or maintain an office or a practice that is primarily devoted to the provision of dental hygiene services.
(4) A dental hygienist shall perform, under direct supervision only, root planing, subgingival curettage, administering nitrous oxide, and local anesthesia.
(5) Under general supervision a dental hygienist may provide to patients, for not more than fifteen (15) consecutive business days, all other dental hygiene services not otherwise limited to direct supervision by this chapter or rules adopted by the board, if all of the following requirements are met:
(A) The dental hygienist has at least one (1) year, full-time, or an equivalent amount of experience practicing dental hygiene;
(B) The dental hygienist complies with written protocols for emergencies that the supervising dentist establishes;
(C) The supervising dentist examined the patient not more than eleven (11) months prior to the date the dental hygienist provides the dental hygiene services;
(D) The dental hygienist provides dental hygiene services to the patient in accordance with a written treatment plan developed by the supervising dentist for the patient; and
(E) The patient is notified in advance of the appointment that the supervising dentist will be absent from the location and that the dental hygienist cannot diagnose the patient's dental health care status.
(d) Any duly licensed and registered dentist may assign to duly licensed and registered dental hygienists, registered dental assistants and/or practical dental assistants, as defined by the board in rules and regulations, any tasks or procedures to be performed in the dentist's office for which a licensed and registered dentist exercises direct supervision and full responsibility, except those procedures requiring the professional judgment or skill of a dentist; provided, that duties involving the removal of hard and soft deposits by scaling or curretage from the surfaces of human teeth are assigned only to duly licensed and registered dental hygienists. The board has the authority to permit registered dental assistants to apply sealants to and to polish human teeth, and the board has the discretion to establish criteria and curricula as necessary to ensure that such registered dental assistants are qualified to apply sealants and perform polishing. For eligibility to perform polishing, passage of a clinical and didactic examination is required. The board is authorized to permit licensed and registered dental hygienists and registered dental assistants to insert, pack, carve and finish amalgam and intracoronal nonmetallic restorations and take final impressions for fixed and removable prosthetic appliances, under the direct supervision and full responsibility of a licensed dentist, and the board shall establish such criteria and curricula as it determines in its discretion are necessary or appropriate to ensure that such hygienists and assistants are qualified to perform such procedures. Tasks and procedures assignable to licensed and registered dental hygienists shall include those enumerated in the board's regulations as of January 1, 1990, and such other additional tasks and procedures as the board may deem appropriate in the future. Procedures requiring professional judgment or skill not assignable to such dental hygienists and dental assistants include the following:
(1) Diagnosis and treatment planning; oral surgery, the cutting of hard and/or soft tissues, excluding any cutting of such tissues involved in subgingival scaling, root planing and gingival curettage, and any intra-oral procedures that would affect the function and/or efficiency of an appliance that, when worn by the patient, would come in direct contact with hard or soft tissue and that could result in tissue irritation or injury;
(2) The placing of permanent fillings or restorations in or on teeth except as provided in this subsection (d); and
(3) Administration of a general or local anesthetic, except for a topical anesthetic in connection with a dental operation; provided, however, that dental hygienists who possess a permit issued pursuant to subdivision (b)(12) may administer a local anesthetic but only under the direct supervision of a licensed and registered dentist who is physically present at the same office location and time and in accordance with rules and regulations of the board.
(e) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, a dental hygienist may administer nitrous oxide analgesia if directed by a dentist to do so, in accordance with rules and regulations of the board of dentistry, under the direct supervision of a licensed and registered dentist. Patients who have been administered nitrous oxide shall be monitored appropriately.
(f)
(1) Except as provided in subdivisions (f)(2) and (3), a licensed dentist shall not allow, under general supervision, more than three (3) dental hygienists to work at any one (1) time.
(2) A dentist may supervise, under direct supervision, no more than ten (10) dental hygienists while the dentist and each hygienist is providing dental services on a volunteer basis through a nonprofit provider of free mobile clinics in this state.
(3) A dentist may supervise, under general supervision, no more than five (5) dental hygienists if the dentist and dental hygienists work for the department of health, a county or metropolitan health department, or an entity that participates in the state safety net program for the uninsured. A dentist supervising dental hygienists under this subdivision (f)(3) must do so in accordance with protocols established by the department of health or a county or metropolitan health department.
(g) Any duly licensed and registered dentist who uses general anesthesia, deep sedation or conscious sedation in that dentist's practice, at a level to be determined by the board, must secure a permit from the board by meeting the standards as set in rules and regulations and by paying fees set by the board. Such permit is subject to renewal at intervals upon payment of a fee as set by the board in rules and regulations. Any dental facility in which general anesthesia, deep sedation or conscious sedation is administered by such dentist is subject to standards as may be specified in rules and regulations of the board, including, but not limited to, a facility permit.
(h)
(1) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, the practice of dental hygiene also includes prescriptive authority limited to fluoride agents, topical oral anesthetic agents, and nonsystemic oral antimicrobials that:
(A) Are not controlled substances under state and federal drug laws; and
(B) Do not require a license from the federal drug enforcement agency.
(2) Prescriptive authority under this section must be:
(A) Exercised under the general supervision of a licensed dentist;
(B) Pursuant to rules promulgated by the board; and
(C) In compliance with all applicable laws concerning prescription packaging, labeling, and record keeping requirements.
(3) A prescription written by a dental hygienist under this part must be reviewed by a dentist within thirty (30) days.
(4) The board shall determine by rule the educational and training requirements necessary for a dental hygienist to exercise prescriptive authority pursuant to this section.
(5) The board shall determine by rule the percentage of fluoride or any other active ingredient in any medication that may be prescribed by a dental hygienist under this subsection (h).
The following persons, acts, practices and operations are exempt from the other provisions of this chapter:
(1) The practice of their professions by physicians or surgeons licensed as such under the laws of this state, unless they practice dentistry as a specialty;
(2) The practice of dentistry and dental hygiene in the discharge of their official duties by graduate dentists and by dental hygienists in the United States public health service, army, navy, air force, coast guard or veterans administration;
(3) The practice of dentistry by licensed dentists or the practice of dental hygiene by licensed dental hygienists of other states or countries at meetings of the Tennessee Dental Association or Pan Tennessee Dental Association, or component parts thereof, alumni meetings of dental colleges or any other like dental organizations while appearing as clinicians;
(4) Licensed dentists or dental hygienists of other states who are called into Tennessee by licensed dentists of this state for consultative or operative purposes if the board or its designee gives discretionary advance approval in each such instance;
(5) The practice of dentistry or of dental hygiene by graduates of schools or colleges recognized by the board who are duly licensed in other states in the discharge of their official duties in state-supported institutions or official health agencies or other special projects approved by the board between the time of their employment as such and the next examination and licensing by the board;
(6) The practice of dentistry or of dental hygiene by students under the supervision of instructors in any dental school, college or dental department of any school, college, university or school of dental hygiene recognized by the board, but such activities shall not be carried on for profit;
(7) The giving by a registered nurse anesthetist of any anesthetic for a dental operation under the direct supervision of a licensed dentist;
(8) The construction, reproduction, restoration, alteration or repair of bridges, crowns, dentures or any other prosthetic or orthodontic appliances or materials to be used or worn as substitutes for natural teeth or for correction or regulation of natural teeth, upon order, prescription or direction of a licensed dentist, when the impressions, casts or models thereof have been made or taken by a licensed and registered dentist, a licensed and registered dental hygienist under the direct supervision of a licensed and registered dentist or a registered dental assistant under the direct supervision of a licensed and registered dentist; provided, that such prosthetic dentures or orthodontic appliances or bridges or the services rendered in construction, repair, restoration or alteration thereof are not advertised, other than in a professional or trade journal, or by direct mail to licensed dentists or other laboratories and are not sold or delivered directly or indirectly to the public by any unlicensed person or dental laboratory, either as principal or as agent;
(9) Dental interns and externs or graduates of dental and dental hygiene schools or colleges recognized by the board employed by licensed hospitals or other agencies recognized and approved by the board;
(10) Personnel involved in research or developmental projects, approved by the board, that are under the auspices and direction of a recognized educational institution or the department of health;
(11) Graduates of dental schools or colleges serving as clinical instructors in board-recognized teaching institutions, while performing only those duties required by and under the supervision of such teaching institutions, upon completing prescribed registration forms and payment of a fee as set by the board; however, such exemption shall be confined to the interim immediately prior to the next scheduled applicable examination of the board and shall not be extended if the applicant does not successfully pass the examination;
(12) Dentists and dental hygienists duly licensed in other states who desire to work with special projects recognized and approved by the board may do so under the sponsorship of a local dentist and the auspices of the local dental society for a period of six (6) months;
(13) Dentists or dental hygienists duly licensed in other states practicing within authorized Tennessee department of health programs or programs affiliated with the Tennessee department of health for a period not to exceed twenty-four (24) months;
(14) The application of fluoride varnish to the teeth of at-risk, underserved persons in or under the auspices of a state, county or municipal public health clinic by public health nurses or nurse practitioners;
(15) The application of dental sealants to the teeth of individuals in a setting under the direction of a state or local health department by licensed hygienists, without requiring an evaluation by a dentist prior to such application, under a protocol established by the state or a metropolitan health department; or
(16) The application of topical fluoride to the teeth of individuals in a setting under the direction of a state or local health department by licensed hygienists, without requiring an evaluation by a dentist prior to such application, under a protocol established by the state or a metropolitan health department.
(1) A person desiring to obtain a license to practice dentistry in this state shall make application to the board. The application must be accompanied by a certificate showing that the applicant is a graduate of an accredited dental school or college or from the dental department of a university approved by the board.
(2) The applicant shall be at least eighteen (18) years of age, a citizen of the United States or Canada or legally entitled to live within the United States and of good moral character and reputation.
(3) The application must be accompanied by the applicant's photograph and by a nonrefundable application fee as set by the board in rules and regulations.
(b) The board is authorized to cause a license to be issued to an applicant of good moral character and professional competence who is licensed to practice dentistry in another state, which shall include the District of Columbia or a territory of the United States, if the board determines to its satisfaction that the applicant meets all of the following requirements:
(1) Currently holds a valid license to practice dentistry in another state and provides a copy of such license, and also provides the name of another state in which the applicant is or has been licensed;
(2) Absence of any pending disciplinary charges or action in another state or any current investigation by a disciplinary authority or another state and provides pertinent information about any disciplinary action imposed against the applicant in any other state, which the board is to evaluate and determine whether such is disqualifying for licensure in this state;
(3) Has not failed previously an examination for licensure to practice dentistry in Tennessee;
(4) Graduation from a dental school or college duly accredited by the American Dental Association Commission on Dental Accreditation;
(5) Demonstrates intent to actively practice or teach in Tennessee;
(6) Has, pursuant to the authority of a state dental licensing board or boards:
(A) Practiced dentistry in another state or states for at least five (5) years;
(B) Taught in an American Dental Association accredited institution for at least five (5) years;
(C) Any combination of subdivision (b)(6)(A) or subdivision (b)(6)(B) for at least five (5) years;
(D) Practiced dentistry for at least two (2) years in another state or states and, in addition, presents satisfactory evidence of passing an examination administered by another state substantially equivalent to the examination required for initial licensure in Tennessee, the appropriateness of such examinations to be evaluated and determined by the board;
(E) Taught for at least two (2) years in an American Dental Association accredited institution and, in addition, presents satisfactory evidence of passing an examination administered by a regional testing agency or a clinical board examination administered by another state substantially equivalent to the examination required for initial licensure in Tennessee, the appropriateness of such examination to be evaluated and determined by the board; or
(F) Any combination of subdivision (b)(6)(D) or subdivision (b)(6)(E) for at least two (2) years; and
(7) Payment of a nonrefundable application fee as set by the board.
(c) The board is authorized, in its discretion, to issue a limited license for educational purposes to any dentist who is duly licensed to practice in any other state who meets the requirements of the board and who submits satisfactory evidence of good moral character and professional competence, including a certificate to that effect from the licensing or registration board from all states in which the applicant has held a license, upon payment of a nonrefundable fee as set by the board.
(d) The board shall direct the division to issue a license to an applicant, without the necessity of further examination except as required by § 63-5-113, if the board determines that the applicant meets all of the following qualifications:
(1) Is a graduate with either a D.D.S. or D.M.D. degree of an accredited dental school or college or of a dental department of a university approved by the board;
(2) Is licensed to practice dentistry in another state, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico or a dependency of the United States;
(3) Has successfully completed a graduate training program in a recognized specialty branch of dentistry; and
(4) Is currently duly licensed to practice medicine in this state.
(e) The board is authorized, in its discretion, to issue a limited license for the practice of dentistry in American Dental Association accredited institutions or dental education programs or in federally-designated health professional shortage areas, if the applicant meets the following requirements:
(1) Is a graduate of a school of dentistry with a degree substantially equivalent to either a D.D.S. or D.M.D. degree;
(2) Has successfully completed a graduate training program in a recognized specialty branch of dentistry from an advanced specialty program accredited by the American Dental Association;
(3) Has successfully completed the national board examinations;
(4) Payment of nonrefundable fee, as set by the board;
(5) Provides satisfactory evidence of good moral character and professional competency;
(6) Provides proof of naturalization or ability to live and work in the United States; and
(1) The board may conduct examinations at such times and places as it may designate and charge each examinee a fee for each examination taken as set annually by the board.
(2) In addition to examinations conducted pursuant to subdivision (a)(1), the board shall recognize a certificate granted by the American Dental Association's Commission on National Board Dental Examinations and may accept the results of its own board examination or the results of an examination conducted by one (1) or more of the regional testing agencies.
(3) An examination described in this subsection (a) may be written or oral, or both; shall include subjects as may be designated by the board; and may also include practical tests, working operations, and demonstrations, within the discretion of the board. An examination may be conducted on a live human patient or a non-patient-based model may be used.
(b)
(1) If the applicant shall successfully pass the examination and shall be found worthy, the board shall direct the division to issue a license to that applicant.
(2) The board may, within its discretion, refuse to grant a certificate to any person found guilty of making false statements, cheating or of any fraud or deception, either in applying for or in taking the examination.
(3) The board may, within its discretion, refuse to issue a license to any person who fails to apply for the same within ninety (90) days following notification of successful completion of all requirements for the licensure.
(a) No licensed dentist shall claim to the public to be a specialist, or be specially qualified in any particular branch of dentistry or to be giving special attention to any branch of dentistry, or claim to limit the dentist's practice to any branch of dentistry, until that dentist has complied with the additional requirements established by the board and has been issued a certificate by the board authorizing that dentist so to do. The board is authorized to certify “specialists” in the following branches of dentistry:
(1) Dental public health;
(2) Endodontics;
(3) Oral and maxillofacial pathology;
(4) Oral and maxillofacial surgery;
(5) Orthodontics and dentofacial orthopedics;
(6) Pediatric dentistry;
(7) Periodontics;
(8) Prosthodontics;
(9) Oral and maxillofacial radiology; and
(10) Any other branch of dentistry hereafter recognized as a specialty by the American Dental Association and approved by the board.
(b) Oral and maxillofacial surgeons are held to the same standard of care as physicians licensed under chapters 6 or 9 of this title.
(c) In considering or acting upon matters related to specialists or special areas of dentistry, the board shall utilize as consultants one (1) or more knowledgeable persons certified in the applicable specialty or knowledgeable in the special area.
(a) Any dentist duly licensed in this state who has completed a minimum of two (2) years of graduate education in a dental school accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation or the equivalent thereof in a specialty branch of dentistry or who has otherwise met the requirements of the rules promulgated by the board may apply for a certificate as a specialist.
(b) The board may recognize specialty certification of those dentists licensed through the licensure criteria provisions of § 63-5-110, if the requirements for certification in the original state are substantially equivalent to those requirements in this state.
(c) No one shall offer or conduct any school, course, or program that grants credentialed status or that graduates individuals for credentialed status, or its equivalent, in any particular branch of dentistry or any specific area of the practice of dentistry that is not listed as a recognized specialty in § 63-5-112. Dental, dental hygiene, and dental assisting colleges, schools, or programs in this state that are accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation are exempt from this subsection (c).
(a) The board is authorized to issue a license to practice dental hygiene to applicants who are citizens of the United States or Canada or who are legally entitled to live within the United States, who have graduated and received a diploma from a dental hygiene program accredited by the American Dental Association's Commission on Dental Accreditation, that provides a minimum of two (2) academic years of dental hygiene curriculum and that may be completed in a period of time less than two (2) years, in or through an institution of higher education accredited by an agency recognized by the United States department of education to offer college-level programs and who have successfully passed such examinations as may be established by the board. The board may recognize a certificate granted by the joint commission of national dental examinations or accept the results of the southern regional testing agency, or either organization, in lieu of or subject to such examinations as may be required by the board.
(b)
(1) Each applicant for a license as a dental hygienist shall pay a nonrefundable application fee to the board, as set annually by the board.
(2) Any applicant submitting to an examination conducted by the board shall, in addition to the application fee, pay a nonrefundable examination fee as set annually by the board.
(3) The license shall be of the type and kind agreed upon by the board.
(c) The secretary of the board shall keep a separate register showing the names and addresses of all dental hygienists so licensed by the board.
(d) The board is authorized in its discretion to issue a license by criteria approval to any dental hygienist who:
(1) Is licensed and has, pursuant to that license, actively engaged in practice for three (3) years or more in another state or states;
(2) Is a graduate of and has received a diploma from a dental hygiene program accredited by the American Dental Association's Commission on Dental Accreditation that provides a minimum of two (2) academic years of dental hygiene curriculum and that may be completed in a period of time less than two (2) years, in or through an institution of higher education accredited by an agency recognized by the United States department of education to offer college-level programs; and
(3) Submits satisfactory evidence of good moral character and professional competence, including a certificate to that effect from the licensing or registration board from all states in which the applicant has held a license, upon payment of a nonrefundable fee as set by the board.
(e) The board is authorized in its discretion to issue a limited license for educational purposes to any dental hygienist who is duly licensed or registered to practice in any other state, who meets the requirements of the board and who submits satisfactory evidence of good moral character and professional competence, including a certificate to that effect from the licensing or registration board from all states in which the applicant has held a license, upon payment of a nonrefundable fee as set by the board.
(f) The board may in its discretion revoke a license to any person who fails to register the license with the board within ninety (90) days following notification of licensure.
(a) A duly licensed and registered dentist may employ licensed and registered dental hygienists, registered dental assistants and practical dental assistants. Such licensed and registered dental hygienists may practice as authorized in this section or § 63-5-108 only in the office of and under the direct and/or general supervision of a licensed and registered dentist, in authorized public health programs or at other locations otherwise authorized by this chapter. Such registered and/or practical dental assistants may practice as authorized in this section or § 63-5-108 only in the office of and under the direct supervision of a licensed and registered dentist except in authorized public health programs. No provisions in this chapter shall be construed as authorizing any licensed and registered dental hygienists, registered dental assistants or practical dental assistants to practice as such except as provided in this section.
(b) Definitions.
(1) Direct Supervision. As used in this chapter regarding supervision of licensed and registered dental hygienists or registered dental assistants, “direct supervision” means the continuous presence of a supervising dentist within the physical confines of the dental office when licensed and registered dental hygienists or registered dental assistants perform lawfully assigned duties and functions;
(2) General Supervision. As used in this chapter, “general supervision” is defined as those instances when the dentist is not present in the dental office or treatment facility while procedures are being performed by the dental hygienist, but the dentist has personally diagnosed the condition to be treated, has personally authorized the procedures being performed and will evaluate the performance of the dental hygienist.
(c) Licensed and registered dental hygienists and registered dental assistants are specifically permitted to participate unsupervised in educational functions involving organized groups or health care institutions regarding preventive oral health care. Dental hygienists are permitted to participate in health screenings and similar activities; provided, that no remuneration is given by the organized group to any hygienist or the hygienist's employer for participating in these activities.
(d)
(1) Settings in which licensed and registered hygienists may engage in the provision of preventive dental care under the general supervision of a dentist through written protocol include nursing homes, skilled care facilities, nonprofit clinics and public health programs. Dental hygienists licensed and registered pursuant to this chapter are specifically permitted to render such preventive services as authorized in § 63-5-108 or by regulation of the board, as prescribed by the supervising dentist under a written protocol. Dental hygienists rendering such services shall be under the general supervision of a licensed dentist as specified in a written protocol between the supervising dentist and the hygienist which must be submitted in advance to the board. No dentist may enter into a written protocol with more than three (3) dental hygienists at any one time nor may any hygienist be engaged in a written protocol with more than three (3) dentists at any one time. The supervising dentist must process all patient billings. Each written protocol will be valid for a period of two (2) years at which time it must be renewed through resubmission to the board. Should a dentist cease to be the employer/supervisor of a dental hygienist where a written protocol is in force and on file with the board, the dentist must notify the board within ten (10) working days by certified mail, return receipt requested or electronic mail that the written protocol is no longer in force.
(2) Licensed and registered dental hygienists working under written protocol, in addition to those requirements enumerated under the general supervision as authorized by § 63-5-108(c)(5), must have actively practiced as a licensed dental hygienist for at least five (5) years and have practiced two thousand (2,000) hours in the preceding five (5) years or taught dental hygiene courses for two (2) of the proceeding three (3) years in a dental hygiene program accredited by the American Dental Association's Commission on Dental Accreditation and completed six (6) hours of public health continuing education within the past two (2) years; provided, that, after satisfying the requirement of this subsection (d), in subsequent years the hygienist may work on a part-time basis.
(3) Each written protocol, required for off-site practice under general supervision, shall be submitted to the board by certified mail, return receipt requested and shall include at a minimum:
(A) The name, address, telephone number and license number of the employer (supervising) dentist;
(B) The name, address, telephone number and license number of the dental hygienist;
(C) The name, address, telephone number and other pertinent identification from all locations where the dental hygiene services are to be performed; and
(D) A statement signed by the dentist that the dentist and the dental hygienist that meets all minimum standards for general supervision as well as those required for practice under a written protocol as stipulated in this section and § 63-5-108.
(4) The board will receive each written protocol submitted and keep those on file which meet the minimum requirements enumerated in subdivision (d)(3). Those received by the board and determined not to be complete shall be returned to the submitting dentist within thirty (30) days of receipt with a request for the additional information required. The dentist may then resubmit an amended written protocol to the board.
(e) Teledentistry shall not alter or amend the supervision requirements or procedures authorized for licensed and registered dental hygienists or registered dental assistants. Any licensed and registered dental hygienist who, under the supervision of a dentist, assists the dentist in providing dental health services or care using teledentistry is only authorized to perform those services that the dental hygienist is authorized to perform during an in-person patient encounter under general supervision. Services provided by registered dental hygienists through teledentistry should be provided under written protocol in accordance with subsection (d).
(a) The board may revoke or suspend the license of, assess a civil penalty for each separate violation against or otherwise lawfully discipline any dentist who permits any licensed and registered dental hygienist, registered dental assistant and/or practical dental assistant operating under that dentist's supervision to perform any acts or services other than those authorized by this chapter.
(b) The board may also revoke or suspend the license or registration of, assess a civil penalty for each separate violation against or otherwise lawfully discipline any dental hygienist or dental assistant violating any of the provisions of this chapter.
(a) Each licensed dentist shall pay an annual renewal fee to the board, payable in advance. The secretary of the board shall notify each licensed dentist that such renewal fee is due.
(b) Each licensed dental hygienist shall pay an annual renewal fee to the board as set by the board, payable in advance, for the ensuing year on or before December 31 of each year, which fees shall become part of the fees of the board and handled in the same manner as other fees of the board. The secretary shall notify all licensed dental hygienists prior to December 31 of each year that the fee is due.
(c) Each registered dental assistant shall pay a biennial renewal fee to the board as set by the board, payable in advance, for the ensuing two (2) years on or before December 31 of each even year, which fees shall become a part of the fees of the board to be handled in the same manner as other fees of the board. The secretary shall notify all registered dental assistants prior to December 31 of each even year that such fee is due.
(d) When any licensed dentist, licensed dental hygienist or registered dental assistant fails to register and pay the registration fee within sixty (60) days after registration becomes due as provided in this section, the license or certificate of such person shall be automatically revoked at the expiration of sixty (60) days after the registration was required, without further notice or hearing. Any person whose license or certificate is automatically revoked as provided in this subsection (d) may make application in writing to the Tennessee board of dental examiners for the reinstatement of such license or certificate, and, upon good cause being shown, the board in its discretion may reinstate such license or certificate upon payment of all past-due renewal fees and upon the further payment of a sum as set by the board.
(e)
(1) Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter to the contrary, the division, with the approval of the commissioner, shall establish a system of license renewals at alternative intervals that will allow for the distribution of the license workload as uniformly as is practicable throughout the calendar year. Licenses issued under the alternative method are valid for twenty-four (24) months and shall expire on the last day of the last month of the license period; however, during a transition period, or at any time thereafter when the board determines that the volume of work for any given interval is unduly burdensome or costly, either the licenses or renewals, or both of them, may be issued for terms of not less than six (6) months nor more than eighteen (18) months. The fee imposed for any license under the alternative interval method for a period of other than twenty-four (24) months shall be proportionate to the annual fee and modified in no other manner, except that the proportional fee shall be rounded off to the nearest quarter of a dollar (25¢).
(2) No renewal application will be accepted after the last day of the month following the license expiration date under the alternative method authorized in subdivision (e)(1).
Anyone who is licensed or certified and is an ethical practitioner of dentistry or dental hygiene in the state and who is of good moral character, who shall desire to change residence to another state, territory, the District of Columbia or to a foreign country, upon application to the board, shall receive a special certificate or endorsement signed by the secretary and bearing the seal of the board, which shall attest such facts, the date of licensure or certification and such other facts as may be deemed necessary. The nonrefundable fee for each certificate or endorsement shall be set by the board.
(a) All fees coming into the hands of the board, including examination fees, renewal fees, fines and penalties, shall be paid by the board to the state treasurer and become part of the general fund. The commissioner of finance and administration shall make allotments out of the general fund of at least eighty-five percent (85%) of the funds paid into the general fund by the board for the proper expenditures of the board, and no expenditure shall be made by the board until allotment for the expenditure has been made by the commissioner. Such allotments for the operation of the board shall be disbursed under the general budgetary laws of the state.
(b) The members of the board shall receive as compensation the sum of one hundred dollars ($100) for each day they are actually engaged in the duties of the board in Tennessee, and all necessary expenses incurred in attending the meetings of the board. All reimbursements for travel expenses shall be in accordance with the comprehensive travel regulations as promulgated by the department of finance and administration and approved by the attorney general and reporter.
(c) All fines, fees and penalties provided for in this chapter, whether imposed or required by the board or assessed or imposed by a court, judge or jury, shall belong to and be paid to the board.
(d) The secretary of the board shall, in addition to the per diem provided by this section, receive a salary not to exceed five hundred dollars ($500) per month as set annually by the board.
(e)
(1) The board may select one (1) or more of its members to attend, at the expense of the board, annual meetings of such agencies and associations as the Southern Regional Testing Agency, American Association of Dental Examiners and the Southern Conference of Dental Deans and Examiners, where attendance is necessary and important to the proper functioning of the board.
(2) The members of the board may receive as compensation for attendance at such annual meetings the sum of fifty dollars ($50.00) for each day they are actually engaged in the duties of the board at such annual meetings.
The holder of the license to practice dentistry or dental hygiene shall, at all times, upon request, exhibit such license along with the annual renewal receipt to any of the members of the board, or its authorized agent, or to any officer of the law.
(a) Except where dental services are regularly made available to employees by their employer or where dental services are being provided by an official agency of the state government or any subdivision, any nonprofit organization or hospital, it is unlawful:
(1) For any licensed dentist to practice dentistry as an employee of any person or other entity not engaged primarily in the practice of dentistry; or
(2) For an owner of an active dental practice to be other than a dentist duly licensed to practice in this state.
(b) In the event that a dentist is deceased or becomes substantially disabled, the estate or agent of such dentist may employ another dentist or dentists for a period of not more than two (2) years to provide services to patients until the practice can be sold or otherwise disposed of or closed.
(c)
(1) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit a charitable clinic from employing or contracting with a dentist; provided, that the contractual relationship between the dentist and the charitable clinic is evidenced by a written contract, job description, or documentation, containing language that does not restrict the dentist from exercising independent professional judgment in diagnosing and treating patients.
(2) For the purposes of this subsection (c), the term “charitable clinic” means an entity that meets the following standards:
(A) Has received a determination of exemption from the internal revenue service under 26 U.S.C. § 501(c)(3) or is a distinct part of an entity that has received such a determination of exemption;
(B) Has clinical facilities located in this state;
(C) Has a primary mission to provide health care or dental care services to low-income, uninsured, or underserved individuals;
(D) Provides one or more of the following services for free or at a discounted rate:
(i) Medical care;
(ii) Dental care;
(iii) Mental health care; or
(iv) Prescription medications;
(E) Utilizes volunteer healthcare professionals and nonclinical volunteers; and
(F) Is not required to be licensed under § 68-11-202(a)(1).
(a) Licensed dentists of this state may dispense, prescribe or otherwise distribute drugs rational to the practice of dentistry, and any prescriptions shall be written in accordance with state and federal drug laws.
(b) Licensed pharmacists of this state may fill prescriptions of licensed dentists of this state for any drug necessary or proper to the practice of dentistry.
(c) Any handwritten prescription order for a drug prepared by a dentist who is authorized by law to prescribe a drug must be legible so that it is comprehensible by the pharmacist who fills the prescription. The handwritten prescription order must contain the name of the prescribing dentist, the name and strength of the drug prescribed, the quantity of the drug prescribed, handwritten in letters or in numerals, instructions for the proper use of the drug, and the month and day that the prescription order was issued, recorded in letters or in numerals or a combination thereof. The prescribing dentist must sign the handwritten prescription order on the day it is issued, unless it is a standing order issued in a hospital, a nursing home or an assisted care living facility as defined in § 68-11-201.
(d) Any typed or computer-generated prescription order for a drug issued by a dentist who is authorized by law to prescribe a drug must be legible so that it is comprehensible by the pharmacist who fills the prescription order. The typed or computer generated prescription order must contain the name of the prescribing dentist, the name and strength of the drug prescribed, the quantity of the drug prescribed, recorded in letters or in numerals, instructions for the proper use of the drug, and the month and day that the typed or computer generated prescription order was issued, recorded in letters or in numerals or a combination thereof. The prescribing dentist must sign the typed or computer generated prescription order on the day it is issued, unless it is a standing order issued in a hospital, nursing home or an assisted care living facility as defined in § 68-11-201.
(e) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prevent a dentist from issuing a verbal prescription order.
(f)
(1) All handwritten, typed or computer-generated prescription orders must be issued on either tamper-resistant prescription paper or printed utilizing a technology that results in a tamper-resistant prescription that meets the current centers for medicare and medicaid service guidance to state medicaid directors regarding § 7002(b) of the United States Troop Readiness, Veterans' Care, Katrina Recovery, and Iraq Accountability Appropriations Act of 2007, P.L. 110-28, and meets or exceeds specific TennCare requirements for tamper-resistant prescriptions.
(2) Subdivision (f)(1) shall not apply to prescriptions written for inpatients of a hospital, outpatients of a hospital where the doctor or other person authorized to write prescriptions writes the order into the hospital medical record and then the order is given directly to the hospital pharmacy and the patient never has the opportunity to handle the written order, a nursing home or an assisted care living facility as defined in § 68-11-201 or inpatients or residents of a mental health hospital or residential facility licensed under title 33 or individuals incarcerated in a local, state or federal correctional facility.
(a) As used in this section, “COVID-19” means an infectious respiratory disease caused by the coronavirus named SARS-CoV-2, or a mutation of that coronavirus.
(b) Notwithstanding a law to the contrary, a dentist licensed under this chapter may administer a vaccination against COVID-19 if the dentist has received appropriate training as recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
(a) The board has the power and it is its duty to deny, suspend, revoke or otherwise restrict or condition the license of, assess a civil penalty for each separate violation against or otherwise lawfully discipline the holder of any license to practice dentistry or any certificate to practice a dental specialty, any license to practice dental hygiene or practice as a registered dental assistant, whenever the licensee or certificate holder is guilty of violating any of the provisions of this chapter or of the following acts or offenses:
(1) Unprofessional, dishonorable or unethical conduct;
(2) A violation or attempted violation, directly or indirectly, or assisting in or abetting the violation of, or conspiring to violate, this chapter or any lawful order of the board issued pursuant thereto or any criminal statute of this state;
(3) Making false or misleading statements or representations, being guilty of fraud or deceit in obtaining admission to practice or in being guilty of fraud or deceit in the practice of dentistry or dental hygiene or as a registered dental assistant;
(4) Gross health care liability or a pattern of continued or repeated health care liability, ignorance, negligence or incompetence in the course of professional practice;
(5) Habitual intoxication or personal misuse of any drugs or the use of intoxicating liquors, narcotics, controlled substances, controlled substance analogues or other drugs or stimulants, such as, but not limited to, nitrous oxide sedation, in such manner as to adversely affect the person's ability to practice dentistry, dental hygiene or as a registered dental assistant;
(6) Conviction of a felony, conviction of any offense under state or federal drug laws, or conviction of any offense involving moral turpitude. However, an action taken under this subdivision (a)(6) shall be subject to the applicable provisions of the Fresh Start Act that are compiled in chapter 1, part 1 of this title;
(7) Making or signing in one's professional capacity any certificate that is known to be false at the time one makes or signs such certificate;
(8) Dispensing, prescribing or otherwise distributing any controlled substance or any other drug not in the course of professional practice, or not in good faith to relieve pain and suffering or not to cure an ailment, physical infirmity or disease;
(9) Engaging in the practice of dentistry, dental hygiene or as a registered dental assistant when mentally or physically unable to safely do so;
(10) Solicitation by agents or persons of professional patronage or profiting by the acts of those representing themselves to be agents of the licensee or the certificate holder;
(11) Division of fees or agreeing to split or divide fees received for professional services with any person for bringing or referring a patient;
(12) Conducting the practice of dentistry so as to permit directly or indirectly an unlicensed person to perform services or work that under this chapter can be done legally only by persons licensed to practice dentistry or dental hygiene or as a registered dental assistant;
(13) Professional connection or association with any person, firm or corporation in any manner in an effort to avoid and circumvent this chapter, or lending one's name to another for the illegal practice of dentistry by such person;
(14) Claiming to the public to be a specialist in some particular branch of dentistry without being certified by the board as such;
(15) Payment or acceptance of commissions in any form or manner on fees for professional services, references, consultations, pathological reports, radiographs, prescriptions or on other services or articles supplied to patients;
(16) Having work done by or obtaining work from a dental laboratory without issuing a written work order as provided in § 63-5-108;
(17) Giving of testimonials, directly or indirectly, concerning the supposed virtue of secret therapeutic agents or proprietary preparations, such as remedies, vaccines, mouth washes, dentifrices or other articles or materials that are offered to the public, claiming radical cure or prevention of diseases by their use;
(18) Any other unprofessional or unethical conduct that may be specified by the board by the means of rules and regulations duly published and promulgated by the board or the violation of any provision of this chapter;
(19)
(A) A dentist shall not, on behalf of that dentist, that dentist's partner or associate or any other dentist affiliated with that dentist or that dentist's facility, use or participate in the use of any form of public communication containing a false, fraudulent, misleading or deceptive statement or claim;
(B) Moreover, the fact of promulgation of any forms of public communication covered or prohibited in this section or the rules and regulations promulgated hereunder shall be prima facie evidence that the dentist named either used or permitted the use of the public communication;
(C) A licensed dentist is authorized to use personal professional cards, appointment cards, announcements and related materials and appropriate signs and listings indicating the dentist's office and specialty in accordance with rules and regulations promulgated by the board;
(20) Dispensing, prescribing or otherwise distributing any controlled substance, controlled substance analogue or other drug to any person in violation of any law of the state or of the United States; or
(21) Disciplinary action against a person licensed to practice dentistry or dental hygiene or registered to practice as a dental assistant by another state or territory of the United States for any acts or omissions that would constitute grounds for discipline of a person licensed or registered in this state. A certified copy of the initial or final order, or other equivalent document memorializing the disciplinary action from the disciplining state or territory, shall constitute prima facie evidence of a violation of this section and shall be sufficient grounds upon which to deny, restrict or condition licensure/registration or renewal and/or discipline a person licensed in this state.
(b)
(1) In enforcing this section, the board shall, upon probable cause, have the authority to compel an applicant or license or certificate holder to submit to a mental and/or physical examination, by a designated committee of at least three (3) practicing physicians, including a psychiatrist where a question of mental condition is involved. The applicant or license or certificate holder may have an independent physical or mental examination, which examination report shall be filed with the board for consideration. The committee will submit a report of its findings to the board for use in any hearing that may thereafter ensue.
(2) The board may, upon finding of probable cause, require a dentist, dental hygienist or dental assistant to complete drug and/or alcohol treatment through a program designated by, or contracting with, the board. The board in its discretion is authorized to share information, interviews, reports, statements, memoranda or other data at the program director's request. Information shared between the board and the program director shall be deemed not to violate laws requiring confidentiality of investigations or peer review records protected under § 63-5-131.
(c) The board, on its own motion, may investigate any report indicating that a dentist, dental hygienist or dental assistant is or may be in violation of this chapter. Any dentist, dental hygienist, dental assistant, dental or dental related society or association, or any other person who in good faith reports to the board any information that a dentist, dental hygienist or dental assistant is or may be in violation of any provisions of this chapter, is not subject to suit for civil damages as a result thereof.
(d) In assessing a civil penalty pursuant to this chapter, the board should consider the following:
(1) The harm or potential harm of the violation to the public health and welfare;
(2) The extent to which the public was exposed to such harm or potential harm;
(3) The rate, duration and severity of the violations;
(4) The value of the penalty as a deterrent to future violations;
(5) Attempts by the violator to mitigate the harm to the public; and
(6) Such other specific criteria as the board may wish to establish by duly promulgated regulation.
(e) The board, pursuant to duly promulgated rules, may, whenever a final order is issued after a disciplinary contested case hearing that contains findings that a licensee or other person has violated any provision of this chapter, assess the costs directly related to the prosecution of the case, including investigatory costs, against the licensee or person.
(f)
(1) Any elected officer of the board or any duly appointed or elected chair has the authority to administer oaths to witnesses. Upon probable cause being established, the board, by a vote of two-thirds (⅔) of the members to which the board is entitled, may issue subpoenas for the attendance of witnesses and the production of documents and records.
(2) Service of a subpoena issued by the board shall be made by the sheriff of the county of residence of the licensee or person upon whom the subpoena is served.
(3)
(A) A licensee or person served by subpoena shall have thirty (30) days to request in writing a hearing before the board for the sole purpose of making a special appearance to quash or modify the subpoena. The subpoena for attendance of the person or the production of books and records shall be stayed until the board votes upon the request to quash or modify the subpoena. A majority vote of the members to which the board is entitled is required to quash or modify a subpoena.
(B) A motion to appeal from a decision by the board regarding a request to quash or modify a subpoena shall be made to the chancery court in Davidson County within fifteen (15) days of such decision.
(4) If any witness fails or refuses to obey a subpoena issued by it, the board is authorized to make application to any court of record in this state within the jurisdiction of which the witness is found or resides; and the court shall have power to attach the body of the witness and compel the witness to appear before the board and give testimony or produce books, records or papers as ordered. Any failure to obey the court order may be punished by the court issuing the order as a civil contempt.
(5) Each witness who appears before the board by order of the board shall receive for attendance the compensation provided by law for attendance of witnesses in a court of record, which shall be paid from the funds of the board in the same manner as all other expenses of the board are paid.
All proceedings for disciplinary action against a licensee or certificate holder under this chapter shall be conducted in accordance with the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5.
(a) The board, in addition to the powers and duties expressly granted by this chapter in the matter of suspension or revocation of a license and in the matter of the refusal to issue a certificate, is authorized and empowered to petition any circuit or chancery court having jurisdiction to enjoin any person who is practicing or attempting to practice dentistry or dental hygiene without possessing a valid license to so practice and to enjoin any person, firm or corporation from performing any act or rendering any service that constitutes the practice of dentistry or dental hygiene as defined in § 63-5-108. No injunction bond shall be required of the board.
(b) Jurisdiction is conferred upon the circuit and chancery courts of the state to hear and determine such causes as chancery causes and to exercise full and complete jurisdiction in such injunctive proceedings.
The board at all times has the power to call upon the district attorneys general for the state in the various districts to assist the board. It is the duty of all district attorneys general throughout the state to assist the board, upon its request, in any suit for injunction or prosecution instituted by the board without charge or additional compensation to the district attorneys general.
(a) Any person who violates any provision of § 63-5-107(a) commits a Class B misdemeanor.
(b) After being convicted of any violation of § 63-5-107(a), any person who again violates § 63-5-107(a) commits a Class E felony.
(c) Any person who has been enjoined by a court of competent jurisdiction from performing any acts or rendering any services that constitute the practice of dentistry as defined in § 63-5-108, who thereafter willfully violates the terms of the injunction by again performing such acts or rendering such services, commits a Class E felony.
Any person licensed to practice dentistry or dental hygiene in this state who has retired or may hereafter retire from such practice in this state is not required to register as required by this chapter; provided, that such person files with the board an affidavit on a form to be furnished by the board, which affidavit states the date on which such person retired from such practice and other such facts as tend to verify such retirement as the board deems necessary. If such person thereafter reengages in the practice of dentistry or dental hygiene in this state, such person shall apply for registration with the board as provided by this chapter.
Any person licensed to practice dentistry or dental hygiene in this state who is an officer in the commissioned dental corps of the army, navy, air force or the public health service of the United States shall not be required to register as required in this chapter. Such person shall file with the board an affidavit on a form to be furnished by the board, which affidavit shall state the date on which such person entered the army, navy, air force or the public health service of the United States and such other facts as tend to verify such service as the board shall deem necessary. When such person resigns or is honorably discharged from one (1) of the aforementioned services and engages in the practice of dentistry or dental hygiene in this state or any other state, such person shall, within thirty (30) days, apply for registration with the board as provided for in this chapter.
(a) As used in this section, “peer review committee” or “committee” means any committee, board, commission or other entity constituted by any statewide dental association or local dental society for the purpose of receiving and evaluating dental acts of other dentists or dental auxiliary personnel or their personal conduct as it relates to the performance of their professional duties.
(b) Any dentist who serves on any peer review committee or on any other committee is immune from liability with respect to any action taken by the dentist in good faith and without malice as a member of such committee, board, commission or other entity.
(c) Dentists, dental hygienists and registered dental assistants, members of boards of directors or trustees of any publicly supported or privately supported hospital or other such provider of health care, or any other individual appointed to any committee, as such term is described in subsection (a), are immune from liability to any patient, individual or organization for furnishing information, data, reports or records to any such committee or for damages resulting from any decision, opinions, actions and proceedings rendered, entered or acted upon by such committees undertaken or performed within the scope or functions of the duties of such committees, if made or taken in good faith and without malice and on the basis of facts reasonably known or reasonably believed to exist.
(d) All information, interviews, reports, statements, memoranda or other data furnished to any such peer review committee or other entity and any findings, conclusions or recommendations resulting from the proceedings of such committee or other entity are privileged. The records and proceedings of any such committee or other entity are confidential and shall be used by such committee or other entity and the members thereof only in the exercise of the proper functions of the committee or other entity and shall not become public record nor be available for court subpoena or discovery proceedings. Nothing contained in this subsection (d) applies to records, documents or information otherwise available from original sources, such records, documents or information not to be construed as immune from discovery or use in any civil proceeding solely due to presentation to the committee.
The board of dentistry shall establish by rule an inactive license category that allows dentists to perform services without compensation only for those persons receiving services from organizations that have received a determination of exemption under § 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code. Such inactive license category shall not authorize any other practice of dentistry.
(a) A dental referral service shall not participate in the advertising of, or operate, a dental referral service unless it meets all of the following requirements:
(1) Its patient referrals result from patient-initiated responses to the dental referral service's advertising;
(2) It discloses to any prospective patient in its advertising that participating dentists have paid a fee for participation in the service;
(3) It does not impose a fee on participating dentists dependent on the number of referrals or amount of professional fees paid by the patient to the dentist; and
(4) It duly registers with the board, providing all information reasonably required by the board.
(b) Participating dentists shall not enter into an agreement to accept for dental care or treatment a person referred or recommended by a dental referral service unless the dental referral service meets all the requirements of subsection (a). Participating dentists shall charge no more than their usual and customary fees to any patient so referred or recommended.
(c)
(1) “Dental referral service” is a person, firm, partnership, association, corporation, agent or employee of any of the foregoing that engages in any business or service for profit that in whole or in part includes the referral or recommendation of persons to a dentist for any form of dental care or treatment.
(2) “Participating dentist” is a dentist duly licensed under this chapter who has paid a fee to a dental referral service in order to be included in its referral service.
(d) A dental referral service that advertises shall include in each advertisement legible or audible language, or both, a disclaimer containing all the following statements or information:
(1) The advertisement is paid for by participating dentists who have paid a fee to participate; and
(2) No representation is made about the quality of the dental services to be performed or expertise of the participating dentists, and that participating dentists are not more or less qualified than dentists who are not participating in the service.
(e) Dental referral service advertisements shall not do any of the following:
(1) Advertise or solicit patients in a manner that contains a false, fraudulent, misleading or deceptive statement in any material respect;
(2) Publish or circulate, directly or indirectly, any false, fraudulent, misleading or deceptive statement as to the skill or methods of practice of any participating dentist;
(3) Contain a statement or make a recommendation that the dental referral service provides referrals to the most qualified dentists or dental practice; or
(4) Advertise a review process or a screening that misleads the public into thinking a participating dentist has obtained special recognition or joined a selective group of licensed dentists by being a participating dentist in the dental referral service.
A dentist or a dental hygienist licensed pursuant to this chapter under a special volunteer license who is a medical practitioner, as defined by § 63-1-201, engaged in practice at a free health clinic shall not be subject to license fees under this chapter. The board of dentistry may issue a special volunteer license, as such license is defined in § 63-1-201, to qualified applicants without fee or charge. Such license shall be for a period of two (2) years and may be renewed on a biennial basis.
The Dentist and Dental Hygienist Compact is enacted into law and entered into by this state with all states legally joining therein in the form substantially as follows:
Dentist and Dental Hygienist Compact
Section 1. Title and Purpose.
This statute shall be known and cited as the Dentist and Dental Hygienist Compact. The purposes of this Compact are to facilitate the interstate practice of dentistry and dental hygiene and improve public access to dentistry and dental hygiene services by providing Dentists and Dental Hygienists licensed in a Participating State the ability to practice in Participating States in which they are not licensed. The Compact does this by establishing a pathway for Dentists and Dental Hygienists licensed in a Participating State to obtain a Compact Privilege that authorizes them to practice in another Participating State in which they are not licensed. The Compact enables Participating States to protect the public health and safety with respect to the practice of such Dentists and Dental Hygienists, through the State's authority to regulate the practice of dentistry and dental hygiene in the State. The Compact:
A. Enables Dentists and Dental Hygienists who qualify for a Compact Privilege to practice in other Participating States without satisfying burdensome and duplicative requirements associated with securing a License to practice in those States;
B. Promotes mobility and addresses workforce shortages through each Participating State's acceptance of a Compact Privilege to practice in that State;
C. Increases public access to qualified, licensed Dentists and Dental Hygienists by creating a responsible, streamlined pathway for Licensees to practice in Participating States;
D. Enhances the ability of Participating States to protect the public's health and safety;
E. Does not interfere with licensure requirements established by a Participating State;
F. Facilitates the sharing of licensure and disciplinary information among Participating States;
G. Requires Dentists and Dental Hygienists who practice in a Participating State pursuant to a Compact Privilege to practice within the Scope of Practice authorized in that State;
H. Extends the authority of a Participating State to regulate the practice of dentistry and dental hygiene within its borders to Dentists and Dental Hygienists who practice in the State through a Compact Privilege;
I. Promotes the cooperation of Participating States in regulating the practice of dentistry and dental hygiene within those States; and
J. Facilitates the relocation of military members and their spouses who are licensed to practice dentistry or dental hygiene.
Section 2. Definitions.
As used in this Compact, unless the context requires otherwise, the following definitions shall apply:
A. “Active Military Member” means any individual in full-time duty status in the armed forces of the United States, including members of the National Guard and Reserve.
B. “Adverse Action” means disciplinary action or encumbrance imposed on a License or Compact Privilege by a State Licensing Authority.
C. “Alternative Program” means a non-disciplinary monitoring or practice remediation process applicable to a Dentist or Dental Hygienist approved by a State Licensing Authority of a Participating State in which the Dentist or Dental Hygienist is licensed. This includes, but is not limited to, programs to which Licensees with substance abuse or addiction issues are referred in lieu of Adverse Action.
D. “Clinical Assessment” means examination or process, required for licensure as a Dentist or Dental Hygienist as applicable, that provides evidence of clinical competence in dentistry or dental hygiene.
E. “Commissioner” means the individual appointed by a Participating State to serve as the member of the Commission for that Participating State.
F. “Compact” means this Dentist and Dental Hygienist Compact.
G. “Compact Privilege” means the authorization granted by a Remote State to allow a Licensee from a Participating State to practice as a Dentist or Dental Hygienist in a Remote State.
H. “Continuing Professional Development” means a requirement, as a condition of License renewal, to provide evidence of successful participation in educational or professional activities relevant to practice or area of work.
I. “Criminal Background Check” means the submission of fingerprints or other biometric-based information for a License applicant for the purpose of obtaining that applicant's criminal history record information, as defined in 28 C.F.R. § 20.3(d) from the Federal Bureau of Investigation and the State's criminal history record repository as defined in 28 C.F.R. § 20.3(f).
J. “Data System” means the Commission's repository of information about Licensees, including, but not limited to, examination, licensure, investigative, Compact Privilege, Adverse Action, and Alternative Program.
K. “Dental Hygienist” means an individual who is licensed by a State Licensing Authority to practice dental hygiene.
L. “Dentist” means an individual who is licensed by a State Licensing Authority to practice dentistry.
M. “Dentist and Dental Hygienist Compact Commission” or “Commission” means a joint government agency established by this Compact comprised of each State that has enacted the Compact and a national administrative body comprised of a Commissioner from each State that has enacted the Compact.
N. “Encumbered License” means a License that a State Licensing Authority has limited in any way other than through an Alternative Program.
O. “Executive Board” means the Chair, Vice Chair, Secretary, and Treasurer and any other Commissioners as may be determined by Commission Rule or bylaw.
P. “Jurisprudence Requirement” means the assessment of an individual's knowledge of the laws and Rules governing the practice of dentistry or dental hygiene, as applicable, in a State.
Q. “License” means current authorization by a State, other than authorization pursuant to a Compact Privilege, or other privilege, for an individual to practice as a Dentist or Dental Hygienist in that State.
R. “Licensee” means an individual who holds an unrestricted License from a Participating State to practice as a Dentist or Dental Hygienist in that State.
S. “Model Compact” means the model for the Dentist and Dental Hygienist Compact on file with the Council of State Governments or other entity as designated by the Commission.
T. “Participating State” means a State that has enacted the Compact and been admitted to the Commission in accordance with the provisions herein and Commission Rules.
U. “Qualifying License” means a License that is not an Encumbered License issued by a Participating State to practice dentistry or dental hygiene.
V. “Remote State” means a Participating State where a Licensee who is not licensed as a Dentist or Dental Hygienist is exercising or seeking to exercise the Compact Privilege.
W. “Rule” means a regulation promulgated by an entity that has the force of law.
X. “Scope of Practice” means the procedures, actions, and processes a Dentist or Dental Hygienist licensed in a State is permitted to undertake in that State and the circumstances under which the Licensee is permitted to undertake those procedures, actions, and processes. Such procedures, actions, and processes and the circumstances under which they may be undertaken may be established through means, including, but not limited to, statute, regulations, case law, and other processes available to the State Licensing Authority or other government agency.
Y. “Significant Investigative Information” means information, records, and documents received or generated by a State Licensing Authority pursuant to an investigation, that includes notification and an opportunity to respond if required by state law, for which a determination has been made that there is probable cause to believe that the Licensee has violated a statute or regulation that is considered more than a minor infraction for which the State Licensing Authority could pursue Adverse Action against the Licensee.
Z. “State” means any state, commonwealth, district, or territory of the United States of America that regulates the practices of dentistry and dental hygiene.
AA. “State Licensing Authority” means an agency or other entity of a State that is responsible for the licensing and regulation of Dentists or Dental Hygienists.
Section 3. State Participation in the Compact.
A. In order to join the Compact and thereafter continue as a Participating State, a State must:
1. Enact a compact that is not materially different from the Model Compact as determined in accordance with Commission Rules;
2. Participate fully in the Commission's Data System;
3. Have a mechanism in place for receiving and investigating complaints about its Licensees and License applicants;
4. Notify the Commission, in compliance with the terms of the Compact and Commission Rules, of any Adverse Action or the availability of Significant Investigative Information regarding a Licensee and License applicant;
5. Fully implement a Criminal Background Check requirement, within a time frame established by Commission Rule, by receiving the results of a qualifying Criminal Background Check;
6. Comply with the Commission Rules applicable to a Participating State;
7. Accept the National Board Examinations of the Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations or another examination accepted by Commission Rule as a licensure examination;
8. Accept for licensure that applicants for a Dentist License graduate from a predoctoral dental education program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation, or another accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education for the accreditation of dentistry and dental hygiene education programs, leading to the Doctor of Dental Surgery (D.D.S.) or Doctor of Dental Medicine (D.M.D.) degree;
9. Accept for licensure that applicants for a Dental Hygienist License graduate from a dental hygiene education program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation or another accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education for the accreditation of dentistry and dental hygiene education programs;
10. Require for licensure that applicants successfully complete a Clinical Assessment;
11. Have Continuing Professional Development requirements as a condition for License renewal; and
12. Pay a participation fee to the Commission as established by Commission Rule.
B. Providing alternative pathways for an individual to obtain an unrestricted License does not disqualify a State from participating in the Compact.
C. When conducting a Criminal Background Check, the State Licensing Authority shall:
1. Consider that information in making a licensure decision;
2. Maintain documentation of completion of the Criminal Background Check and background check information to the extent allowed by State and federal law; and
3. Report to the Commission whether it has completed the Criminal Background Check and whether the individual was granted or denied a License.
D. A Licensee of a Participating State who has a Qualifying License in that State and does not hold an Encumbered License in any other Participating State, shall be issued a Compact Privilege in a Remote State in accordance with the terms of the Compact and Commission Rules. If a Remote State has a Jurisprudence Requirement, a Compact Privilege will not be issued to the Licensee unless the Licensee has satisfied the Jurisprudence Requirement.
Section 4. Compact Privilege.
A. To obtain and exercise the Compact Privilege under the terms and provisions of the Compact, the Licensee shall:
1. Have a Qualifying License as a Dentist or Dental Hygienist in a Participating State;
2. Be eligible for a Compact Privilege in any Remote State in accordance with D, G, and H of this section;
3. Submit to an application process whenever the Licensee is seeking a Compact Privilege;
4. Pay any applicable Commission and Remote State fees for a Compact Privilege in the Remote State;
5. Meet any Jurisprudence Requirement established by a Remote State in which the Licensee is seeking a Compact Privilege;
6. Have passed a National Board Examination of the Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations or another examination accepted by Commission Rule;
7. For a Dentist, have graduated from a predoctoral dental education program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation, or another accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education for the accreditation of dentistry and dental hygiene education programs, leading to the Doctor of Dental Surgery (D.D.S.) or Doctor of Dental Medicine (D.M.D.) degree;
8. For a Dental Hygienist, have graduated from a dental hygiene education program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation or another accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education for the accreditation of dentistry and dental hygiene education programs;
9. Have successfully completed a Clinical Assessment for licensure;
10. Report to the Commission Adverse Action taken by any non-Participating State when applying for a Compact Privilege and, otherwise, within thirty (30) days from the date the Adverse Action is taken;
11. Report to the Commission when applying for a Compact Privilege the address of the Licensee's primary residence and thereafter immediately report to the Commission any change in the address of the Licensee's primary residence; and
12. Consent to accept service of process by mail at the Licensee's primary residence on record with the Commission with respect to any action brought against the Licensee by the Commission or a Participating State, and consent to accept service of a subpoena by mail at the Licensee's primary residence on record with the Commission with respect to any action brought or investigation conducted by the Commission or a Participating State.
B. The Licensee must comply with the requirements of subsection A of this section to maintain the Compact Privilege in the Remote State. If those requirements are met, the Compact Privilege will continue as long as the Licensee maintains a Qualifying License in the State through which the Licensee applied for the Compact Privilege and pays any applicable Compact Privilege renewal fees.
C. A Licensee providing dentistry or dental hygiene in a Remote State under the Compact Privilege shall function within the Scope of Practice authorized by the Remote State for a Dentist or Dental Hygienist licensed in that State.
D. A Licensee providing dentistry or dental hygiene pursuant to a Compact Privilege in a Remote State is subject to that State's regulatory authority. A Remote State may, in accordance with due process and that State's laws, by Adverse Action revoke or remove a Licensee's Compact Privilege in the Remote State for a specific period of time and impose fines or take any other necessary actions to protect the health and safety of its citizens. If a Remote State imposes an Adverse Action against a Compact Privilege that limits the Compact Privilege, that Adverse Action applies to all Compact Privileges in all Remote States. A Licensee whose Compact Privilege in a Remote State is removed for a specified period of time is not eligible for a Compact Privilege in any other Remote State until the specific time for removal of the Compact Privilege has passed and all encumbrance requirements are satisfied.
E. If a License in a Participating State is an Encumbered License, the Licensee shall lose the Compact Privilege in a Remote State and shall not be eligible for a Compact Privilege in any Remote State until the License is no longer encumbered.
F. Once an Encumbered License in a Participating State is restored to good standing, the Licensee must meet the requirements of subsection A of this section to obtain a Compact Privilege in a Remote State.
G. If a Licensee's Compact Privilege in a Remote State is removed by the Remote State, the individual shall lose or be ineligible for the Compact Privilege in any Remote State until the following occur:
1. The specific period of time for which the Compact Privilege was removed has ended; and
2. All conditions for removal of the Compact Privilege have been satisfied.
H. Once the requirements of subsection G of this section have been met, the Licensee must meet the requirements in subsection A of this section to obtain a Compact Privilege in a Remote State.
Section 5. Active Military Member or Their Spouses.
An Active Military Member and their spouse shall not be required to pay to the Commission for a Compact Privilege the fee otherwise charged by the Commission. If a Remote State chooses to charge a fee for a Compact Privilege, it may choose to charge a reduced fee or no fee to an Active Military Member and their spouse for a Compact Privilege.
Section 6. Adverse Actions.
A. A Participating State in which a Licensee is licensed shall have exclusive authority to impose Adverse Action against the Qualifying License issued by that Participating State.
B. A Participating State may take Adverse Action based on the Significant Investigative Information of a Remote State, so long as the Participating State follows its own procedures for imposing Adverse Action.
C. Nothing in this Compact shall override a Participating State's decision that participation in an Alternative Program may be used in lieu of Adverse Action and that such participation shall remain non-public if required by the Participating State's laws. Participating States must require Licensees who enter any Alternative Program in lieu of discipline to agree not to practice pursuant to a Compact Privilege in any other Participating State during the term of the Alternative Program without prior authorization from such other Participating State.
D. Any Participating State in which a Licensee is applying to practice or is practicing pursuant to a Compact Privilege may investigate actual or alleged violations of the statutes and regulations authorizing the practice of dentistry or dental hygiene in any other Participating State in which the Dentist or Dental Hygienist holds a License or Compact Privilege.
E. A Remote State shall have the authority to:
1. Take Adverse Actions as set forth in Section 4.D against a Licensee's Compact Privilege in the State;
2. In furtherance of its rights and responsibilities under the Compact and the Commission's Rules, issue subpoenas for both hearings and investigations that require the attendance and testimony of witnesses, and the production of evidence. Subpoenas issued by a State Licensing Authority in a Participating State for the attendance and testimony of witnesses, or the production of evidence from another Participating State, shall be enforced in the latter State by any court of competent jurisdiction, according to the practice and procedure of that court applicable to subpoenas issued in proceedings pending before it. The issuing authority shall pay any witness fees, travel expenses, mileage, and other fees required by the service statutes of the State where the witnesses or evidence are located; and
3. If otherwise permitted by State law, recover from the Licensee the costs of investigations and disposition of cases resulting from any Adverse Action taken against that Licensee.
F. Joint Investigations
1. In addition to the authority granted to a Participating State by its Dentist or Dental Hygienist licensure act or other applicable State law, a Participating State may jointly investigate Licensees with other Participating States.
2. Participating States shall share any Significant Investigative Information, litigation, or compliance materials in furtherance of any joint investigation initiated under the Compact.
G. Authority to Continue Investigation
1. After a Licensee's Compact Privilege in a Remote State is terminated, the Remote State may continue an investigation of the Licensee that began when the Licensee had a Compact Privilege in that Remote State.
2. If the investigation yields what would be Significant Investigative Information had the Licensee continued to have a Compact Privilege in that Remote State, the Remote State shall report the presence of such information to the Data System as required by Section 8.B.6 as if it was Significant Investigative Information.
Section 7. Establishment and Operation of the Commission.
A. The Compact Participating States hereby create and establish a joint government agency whose membership consists of all Participating States that have enacted the Compact. The Commission is an instrumentality of the Participating States acting jointly and not an instrumentality of any one (1) State. The Commission shall come into existence on or after the effective date of the Compact as set forth in Section 11A.
B. Participation, Voting, and Meetings
1. Each Participating State shall have and be limited to one (1) Commissioner selected by that Participating State's State Licensing Authority or, if the State has more than one (1) State Licensing Authority, selected collectively by the State Licensing Authorities.
2. The Commissioner shall be a member or designee of such Authority or Authorities.
3. The Commission may by Rule or bylaw establish a term of office for Commissioners and may by Rule or bylaw establish term limits.
4. The Commission may recommend to a State Licensing Authority or Authorities, as applicable, removal or suspension of an individual as the State's Commissioner.
5. A Participating State's State Licensing Authority, or Authorities, as applicable, shall fill any vacancy of its Commissioner on the Commission within sixty (60) days of the vacancy.
6. Each Commissioner shall be entitled to one (1) vote on all matters that are voted upon by the Commission.
7. The Commission shall meet at least once during each calendar year. Additional meetings may be held as set forth in the bylaws. The Commission may meet by telecommunication, video conference, or other similar electronic means.
C. The Commission shall have the following powers:
1. Establish the fiscal year of the Commission;
2. Establish a code of conduct and conflict of interest policies;
3. Adopt Rules and bylaws;
4. Maintain its financial records in accordance with the bylaws;
5. Meet and take such actions as are consistent with the provisions of this Compact, the Commission's Rules, and the bylaws;
6. Initiate and conclude legal proceedings or actions in the name of the Commission; provided, that the standing of any State Licensing Authority to sue or be sued under applicable law shall not be affected;
7. Maintain and certify records and information provided to a Participating State as the authenticated business records of the Commission, and designate a person to do so on the Commission's behalf;
8. Purchase and maintain insurance and bonds;
9. Borrow, accept, or contract for services of personnel, including, but not limited to, employees of a Participating State;
10. Conduct an annual financial review;
11. Hire employees, elect or appoint officers, fix compensation, define duties, grant such individuals appropriate authority to carry out the purposes of the Compact, and establish the Commission's personnel policies and programs relating to conflicts of interest, qualifications of personnel, and other related personnel matters;
12. As set forth in the Commission Rules, charge a fee to a Licensee for the grant of a Compact Privilege in a Remote State and thereafter, as may be established by Commission Rule, charge the Licensee a Compact Privilege renewal fee for each renewal period in which that Licensee exercises or intends to exercise the Compact Privilege in that Remote State. Nothing herein shall be construed to prevent a Remote State from charging a Licensee a fee for a Compact Privilege or renewals of a Compact Privilege, or a fee for the Jurisprudence Requirement if the Remote State imposes such a requirement for the grant of a Compact Privilege;
13. Accept any and all appropriate gifts, donations, grants of money, other sources of revenue, equipment, supplies, materials, and services, and receive, utilize, and dispose of the same; provided, that at all times the Commission shall avoid any appearance of impropriety and/or conflict of interest;
14. Lease, purchase, retain, own, hold, improve, or use any property, real, personal, or mixed, or any undivided interest therein;
15. Sell, convey, mortgage, pledge, lease, exchange, abandon, or otherwise dispose of any property real, personal, or mixed;
16. Establish a budget and make expenditures;
17. Borrow money;
18. Appoint committees, including standing committees, which may be composed of members, State regulators, State legislators or their representatives, and consumer representatives, and such other interested persons as may be designated in this Compact and the bylaws;
19. Provide and receive information from, and cooperate with, law enforcement agencies;
20. Elect a Chair, Vice Chair, Secretary, and Treasurer and such other officers of the Commission as provided in the Commission's bylaws;
21. Establish and elect an Executive Board;
22. Adopt and provide to the Participating States an annual report;
23. Determine whether a State's enacted compact is materially different from the Model Compact language such that the State would not qualify for participation in the Compact; and
24. Perform such other functions as may be necessary or appropriate to achieve the purposes of this Compact.
D. Meetings of the Commission
1. All meetings of the Commission that are not closed pursuant to this subsection shall be open to the public. Notice of public meetings shall be posted on the Commission's website at least thirty (30) days prior to the public meeting.
2. Notwithstanding subsection D.1 of this section, the Commission may convene an emergency public meeting by providing at least twenty-four (24) hours' prior notice on the Commission's website, and any other means as provided in the Commission's Rules, for any of the reasons it may dispense with notice of proposed rulemaking under Section 9.L. The Commission's legal counsel shall certify that one of the reasons justifying an emergency public meeting has been met.
3. Notice of all Commission meetings shall provide the time, date, and location of the meeting, and if the meeting is to be held or accessible via telecommunication, video conference, or other electronic means, the notice shall include the mechanism for access to the meeting through such means.
4. The Commission may convene in a closed, non-public meeting for the Commission to receive legal advice or to discuss:
a. Non-compliance of a Participating State with its obligations under the Compact;
b. The employment, compensation, discipline, or other matters, practices, or procedures related to specific employees or other matters related to the Commission's internal personnel practices and procedures;
c. Current or threatened discipline of a Licensee or Compact Privilege holder by the Commission or by a Participating State's Licensing Authority;
d. Current, threatened, or reasonably anticipated litigation;
e. Negotiation of contracts for the purchase, lease, or sale of goods, services, or real estate;
f. Accusing any person of a crime or formally censuring any person;
g. Trade secrets or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential;
h. Information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
i. Investigative records compiled for law enforcement purposes;
j. Information related to any investigative reports prepared by or on behalf of or for use of the Commission or other committee charged with responsibility of investigation or determination of compliance issues pursuant to the Compact;
k. Legal advice;
l. Matters specifically exempted from disclosure to the public by federal or Participating State law; and
m. Other matters as promulgated by the Commission by Rule.
5. If a meeting, or portion of a meeting, is closed, the presiding officer shall state that the meeting will be closed and reference each relevant exempting provision, and such reference shall be recorded in the minutes.
6. The Commission shall keep minutes that fully and clearly describe all matters discussed in a meeting and shall provide a full and accurate summary of actions taken, and the reasons therefore, including a description of the views expressed. All documents considered in connection with an action shall be identified in such minutes. All minutes and documents of a closed meeting shall remain under seal, subject to release only by a majority vote of the Commission or order of a court of competent jurisdiction.
E. Financing of the Commission
1. The Commission shall pay, or provide for the payment of, the reasonable expenses of its establishment, organization, and ongoing activities.
2. The Commission may accept any and all appropriate sources of revenue, donations, and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials, and services.
3. The Commission may levy on and collect an annual assessment from each Participating State and impose fees on Licensees of Participating States when a Compact Privilege is granted, to cover the cost of the operations and activities of the Commission and its staff, which must be in a total amount sufficient to cover its annual budget as approved each fiscal year for which sufficient revenue is not provided by other sources. The aggregate annual assessment amount for Participating States shall be allocated based upon a formula that the Commission shall promulgate by Rule.
4. The Commission shall not incur obligations of any kind prior to securing the funds adequate to meet the same, nor shall the Commission pledge the credit of any Participating State, except by and with the authority of the Participating State.
5. The Commission shall keep accurate accounts of all receipts and disbursements. The receipts and disbursements of the Commission shall be subject to the financial review and accounting procedures established under its bylaws. All receipts and disbursements of funds handled by the Commission shall be subject to an annual financial review by a certified or licensed public accountant, and the report of the financial review shall be included in and become part of the annual report of the Commission.
F. The Executive Board
1. The Executive Board shall have the power to act on behalf of the Commission according to the terms of this Compact. The powers, duties, and responsibilities of the Executive Board shall include:
a. Overseeing the day-to-day activities of the administration of the Compact, including compliance with the provisions of the Compact, the Commission's Rules, and bylaws;
b. Recommending to the Commission changes to the Rules or bylaws, changes to this Compact legislation, fees charged to Compact Participating States, fees charged to Licensees, and other fees;
c. Ensuring Compact administration services are appropriately provided, including by contract;
d. Preparing and recommending the budget;
e. Maintaining financial records on behalf of the Commission;
f. Monitoring Compact compliance of Participating States and providing compliance reports to the Commission;
g. Establishing additional committees as necessary;
h. Exercising the powers and duties of the Commission during the interim between Commission meetings, except for adopting or amending Rules, adopting or amending bylaws, and exercising any other powers and duties expressly reserved to the Commission by Rule or bylaw; and
i. Other duties as provided in the Rules or bylaws of the Commission.
2. The Executive Board shall be composed of up to seven (7) members:
a. The Chair, Vice Chair, Secretary, and Treasurer of the Commission and any other members of the Commission who serve on the Executive Board shall be voting members of the Executive Board; and
b. Other than the Chair, Vice Chair, Secretary, and Treasurer, the Commission may elect up to three (3) voting members from the current membership of the Commission.
3. The Commission may remove any member of the Executive Board as provided in the Commission's bylaws.
4. The Executive Board shall meet at least annually.
a. An Executive Board meeting at which it takes or intends to take formal action on a matter shall be open to the public, except that the Executive Board may meet in a closed, non-public session of a public meeting when dealing with any of the matters covered under subsection D.4.
b. The Executive Board shall give five (5) business days' notice of its public meetings, posted on its website and as it may otherwise determine to provide notice to persons with an interest in the public matters the Executive Board intends to address at those meetings.
5. The Executive Board may hold an emergency meeting when acting for the Commission to:
a. Meet an imminent threat to public health, safety, or welfare;
b. Prevent a loss of Commission or Participating State funds; or
c. Protect public health and safety.
G. Qualified Immunity, Defense, and Indemnification
1. The members, officers, executive director, employees, and representatives of the Commission shall be immune from suit and liability, both personally and in their official capacity, for any claim for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or other civil liability caused by or arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided, that nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to protect any such person from suit or liability for any damage, loss, injury, or liability caused by the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person. The procurement of insurance of any type by the Commission shall not in any way compromise or limit the immunity granted hereunder.
2. The Commission shall defend any member, officer, executive director, employee, and representative of the Commission in any civil action seeking to impose liability arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or as determined by the Commission that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided, that nothing herein shall be construed to prohibit that person from retaining their own counsel at their own expense; and provided further, that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from that person's intentional or willful or wanton misconduct.
3. Notwithstanding subsection G.1 of this section, should any member, officer, executive director, employee, or representative of the Commission be held liable for the amount of any settlement or judgment arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of that individual's employment, duties, or responsibilities for the Commission, or that the person to whom that individual is liable had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of the individual's employment, duties, or responsibilities for the Commission, the Commission shall indemnify and hold harmless such individual; provided, that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of the individual.
4. Nothing herein shall be construed as a limitation on the liability of any Licensee for professional malpractice or misconduct, which shall be governed solely by any other applicable State laws.
5. Nothing in this Compact shall be interpreted to waive or otherwise abrogate a Participating State's state action immunity or state action affirmative defense with respect to antitrust claims under the Sherman Act, Clayton Act, or any other State or federal antitrust or anticompetitive law or regulation.
6. Nothing in this Compact shall be construed to be a waiver of sovereign immunity by the Participating States or by the Commission.
Section 8. Data System.
A. The Commission shall provide for the development, maintenance, operation, and utilization of a coordinated database and reporting system containing licensure, Adverse Action, and the presence of Significant Investigative Information on all Licensees and applicants for a License in Participating States.
B. Notwithstanding any other provision of State law to the contrary, a Participating State shall submit a uniform data set to the Data System on all individuals to whom this Compact is applicable as required by the Rules of the Commission, including:
1. Identifying information;
2. Licensure data;
3. Adverse Actions against a Licensee, License applicant, or Compact Privilege and information related thereto;
4. Non-confidential information related to Alternative Program participation, the beginning and ending dates of such participation, and other information related to such participation;
5. Any denial of an application for licensure, and the reason(s) for such denial (excluding the reporting of any criminal history record information where prohibited by law);
6. The presence of Significant Investigative Information; and
7. Other information that may facilitate the administration of this Compact or the protection of the public, as determined by the Rules of the Commission.
C. The records and information provided to a Participating State pursuant to this Compact or through the Data System, when certified by the Commission or an agent thereof, shall constitute the authenticated business records of the Commission, and shall be entitled to any associated hearsay exception in any relevant judicial, quasi-judicial, or administrative proceedings in a Participating State.
D. Significant Investigative Information pertaining to a Licensee in any Participating State will only be available to other Participating States.
E. It is the responsibility of the Participating States to monitor the database to determine whether Adverse Action has been taken against a Licensee or License applicant. Adverse Action information pertaining to a Licensee or License applicant in any Participating State will be available to any other Participating State.
F. Participating States contributing information to the Data System may designate information that may not be shared with the public without the express permission of the contributing State.
G. Any information submitted to the Data System that is subsequently expunged pursuant to federal law or the laws of the Participating State contributing the information shall be removed from the Data System.
Section 9. Rulemaking.
A. The Commission shall promulgate reasonable Rules in order to effectively and efficiently implement and administer the purposes and provisions of the Compact. A Commission Rule shall be invalid and have no force or effect only if a court of competent jurisdiction holds that the Rule is invalid because the Commission exercised its rulemaking authority in a manner that is beyond the scope and purposes of the Compact, or the powers granted hereunder, or based upon another applicable standard of review.
B. The Rules of the Commission shall have the force of law in each Participating State; provided, however, that where the Rules of the Commission conflict with the laws of the Participating State that establish the Participating State's Scope of Practice as held by a court of competent jurisdiction, the Rules of the Commission shall be ineffective in that State to the extent of the conflict.
C. The Commission shall exercise its Rulemaking powers pursuant to the criteria set forth in this section and the Rules adopted thereunder. Rules shall become binding as of the date specified by the Commission for each Rule.
D. If a majority of the legislatures of the Participating States rejects a Commission Rule or portion of a Commission Rule, by enactment of a statute or resolution in the same manner used to adopt the Compact, within four (4) years of the date of adoption of the Rule, then such Rule shall have no further force and effect in any Participating State or to any State applying to participate in the Compact.
E. Rules shall be adopted at a regular or special meeting of the Commission.
F. Prior to adoption of a proposed Rule, the Commission shall hold a public hearing and allow persons to provide oral and written comments, data, facts, opinions, and arguments.
G. Prior to adoption of a proposed Rule by the Commission, and at least thirty (30) days in advance of the meeting at which the Commission will hold a public hearing on the proposed Rule, the Commission shall provide a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking:
1. On the website of the Commission or other publicly accessible platform;
2. To persons who have requested notice of the Commission's notices of proposed rulemaking; and
3. In such other way(s) as the Commission may by Rule specify.
H. The Notice of Proposed Rulemaking shall include:
1. The time, date, and location of the public hearing at which the Commission will hear public comments on the proposed Rule and, if different, the time, date, and location of the meeting where the Commission will consider and vote on the proposed Rule;
2. If the hearing is held via telecommunication, video conference, or other electronic means, the Commission shall include the mechanism for access to the hearing in the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking;
3. The text of the proposed Rule and the reason therefor;
4. A request for comments on the proposed Rule from any interested person; and
5. The manner in which interested persons may submit written comments.
I. All hearings will be recorded. A copy of the recording and all written comments and documents received by the Commission in response to the proposed Rule shall be available to the public.
J. Nothing in this section shall be construed as requiring a separate hearing on each Commission Rule. Rules may be grouped for the convenience of the Commission at hearings required by this section.
K. The Commission shall, by majority vote of all Commissioners, take final action on the proposed Rule based on the rulemaking record.
1. The Commission may adopt changes to the proposed Rule, provided the changes do not enlarge the original purpose of the proposed Rule.
2. The Commission shall provide an explanation of the reasons for substantive changes made to the proposed Rule as well as reasons for substantive changes not made that were recommended by commenters.
3. The Commission shall determine a reasonable effective date for the Rule. Except for an emergency as provided in subsection L, the effective date of the Rule shall be no sooner than thirty (30) days after the Commission issuing the notice that it adopted or amended the Rule.
L. Upon determination that an emergency exists, the Commission may consider and adopt an emergency Rule with twenty-four (24) hours' notice, with opportunity to comment; provided, that the usual rulemaking procedures provided in the Compact and in this section shall be retroactively applied to the Rule as soon as reasonably possible, in no event later than ninety (90) days after the effective date of the Rule. For the purposes of this provision, an emergency Rule is one that must be adopted immediately in order to:
1. Meet an imminent threat to public health, safety, or welfare;
2. Prevent a loss of Commission or Participating State funds;
3. Meet a deadline for the promulgation of a Rule that is established by federal law or rule; or
4. Protect public health and safety.
M. The Commission or an authorized committee of the Commission may direct revisions to a previously adopted Rule for purposes of correcting typographical errors, errors in format, errors in consistency, or grammatical errors. Public notice of any revisions shall be posted on the website of the Commission. The revision shall be subject to challenge by any person for a period of thirty (30) days after posting. The revision may be challenged only on grounds that the revision results in a material change to a Rule. A challenge shall be made in writing and delivered to the Commission prior to the end of the notice period. If no challenge is made, the revision will take effect without further action. If the revision is challenged, the revision may not take effect without the approval of the Commission.
N. No Participating State's rulemaking requirements shall apply under this Compact.
Section 10. Oversight, Dispute Resolution, and Enforcement.
A. Oversight
1. The executive and judicial branches of State government in each Participating State shall enforce this Compact and take all actions necessary and appropriate to implement the Compact.
2. Venue is proper and judicial proceedings by or against the Commission shall be brought solely and exclusively in a court of competent jurisdiction where the principal office of the Commission is located. The Commission may waive venue and jurisdictional defenses to the extent it adopts or consents to participate in alternative dispute resolution proceedings. Nothing herein shall affect or limit the selection or propriety of venue in any action against a Licensee for professional malpractice, misconduct, or any such similar matter.
3. The Commission shall be entitled to receive service of process in any proceeding regarding the enforcement or interpretation of the Compact or Commission Rule and shall have standing to intervene in such a proceeding for all purposes. Failure to provide the Commission service of process shall render a judgment or order void as to the Commission, this Compact, or promulgated Rules.
B. Default, Technical Assistance, and Termination
1. If the Commission determines that a Participating State has defaulted in the performance of its obligations or responsibilities under this Compact or the promulgated Rules, the Commission shall provide written notice to the defaulting State. The notice of default shall describe the default, the proposed means of curing the default, and any other action that the Commission may take, and shall offer training and specific technical assistance regarding the default.
2. The Commission shall provide a copy of the notice of default to the other Participating States.
C. If a State in default fails to cure the default, the defaulting State may be terminated from the Compact upon an affirmative vote of a majority of the Commissioners, and all rights, privileges, and benefits conferred on that State by this Compact may be terminated on the effective date of termination. A cure of the default does not relieve the offending State of obligations or liabilities incurred during the period of default.
D. Termination of participation in the Compact shall be imposed only after all other means of securing compliance have been exhausted. Notice of intent to suspend or terminate shall be given by the Commission to the governor, the majority and minority leaders of the defaulting State's legislature, the defaulting State's State Licensing Authority or Authorities, as applicable, and each of the Participating States' State Licensing Authority or Authorities, as applicable.
E. A State that has been terminated is responsible for all assessments, obligations, and liabilities incurred through the effective date of termination, including obligations that extend beyond the effective date of termination.
F. Upon the termination of a State's participation in this Compact, that State shall immediately provide notice to all Licensees of the State, including Licensees of other Participating States issued a Compact Privilege to practice within that State, of such termination. The terminated State shall continue to recognize all Compact Privileges then in effect in that State for a minimum of one hundred eighty (180) days after the date of said notice of termination.
G. The Commission shall not bear any costs related to a State that is found to be in default or that has been terminated from the Compact, unless agreed upon in writing between the Commission and the defaulting State.
H. The defaulting State may appeal the action of the Commission by petitioning the U.S. District Court for the District of Columbia or the federal district where the Commission has its principal offices. The prevailing party shall be awarded all costs of such litigation, including reasonable attorney's fees.
I. Dispute Resolution
1. Upon request by a Participating State, the Commission shall attempt to resolve disputes related to the Compact that arise among Participating States and between Participating States and non-Participating States.
2. The Commission shall promulgate a Rule providing for both mediation and binding dispute resolution for disputes as appropriate.
J. Enforcement
1. The Commission, in the reasonable exercise of its discretion, shall enforce the provisions of this Compact and the Commission's Rules.
2. By majority vote, the Commission may initiate legal action against a Participating State in default in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia or the federal district where the Commission has its principal offices to enforce compliance with the provisions of the Compact and its promulgated Rules. The relief sought may include both injunctive relief and damages. In the event judicial enforcement is necessary, the prevailing party shall be awarded all costs of such litigation, including reasonable attorney's fees. The remedies herein shall not be the exclusive remedies of the Commission. The Commission may pursue any other remedies available under federal or the defaulting Participating State's law.
3. A Participating State may initiate legal action against the Commission in the U.S. District Court for the District of Columbia or the federal district where the Commission has its principal offices to enforce compliance with the provisions of the Compact and its promulgated Rules. The relief sought may include both injunctive relief and damages. In the event judicial enforcement is necessary, the prevailing party shall be awarded all costs of such litigation, including reasonable attorney's fees.
4. No individual or entity other than a Participating State may enforce this Compact against the Commission.
Section 11. Effective Date, Withdrawal, and Amendment.
A. The Compact shall come into effect on the date on which the Compact statute is enacted into law in the seventh Participating State.
1. On or after the effective date of the Compact, the Commission shall convene and review the enactment of each of the States that enacted the Compact prior to the Commission convening ("Charter Participating States") to determine if the statute enacted by each such Charter Participating State is materially different than the Model Compact.
a. A Charter Participating State whose enactment is found to be materially different from the Model Compact shall be entitled to the default process set forth in Section 10.
b. If any Participating State is later found to be in default, or is terminated or withdraws from the Compact, the Commission shall remain in existence and the Compact shall remain in effect even if the number of Participating States should be less than seven (7).
2. Participating States enacting the Compact subsequent to the Charter Participating States shall be subject to the process set forth in Section 7.C.23 to determine if their enactments are materially different from the Model Compact and whether they qualify for participation in the Compact.
3. All actions taken for the benefit of the Commission or in furtherance of the purposes of the administration of the Compact prior to the effective date of the Compact or the Commission coming into existence shall be considered to be actions of the Commission unless specifically repudiated by the Commission.
4. Any State that joins the Compact subsequent to the Commission's initial adoption of the Rules and bylaws shall be subject to the Commission's Rules and bylaws as they exist on the date on which the Compact becomes law in that State. Any Rule that has been previously adopted by the Commission shall have the full force and effect of law on the day the Compact becomes law in that State.